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NURS 120 | Renal & Urinary Disorders Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU

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NURS 120 | Renal & Urinary Disorders Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU

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NURS 120 | Renal & Urinary Disorders Comprehensive Quiz 2026
|WCU


1. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) presents with a potassium level
of 6.8 mEq/L. Which of the following provider orders should the nurse
implement first?

A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate

B. Initiate a 2-gram sodium diet

C. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate orally

D. Check the patient’s serum creatinine level

Answer: A
Rationale: In severe hyperkalemia, intravenous calcium gluconate is the priority to
stabilize the myocardium and prevent life-threatening arrhythmias.

2. Which clinical manifestation is most characteristic of the ‘oliguric phase’ of
acute kidney injury (AKI)?

A. Urine output of 2 liters per day

B. Specific gravity fixed at 1.010

C. Metabolic alkalosis

D. Hypokalemia

Answer: B
Rationale: In the oliguric phase, the kidneys lose the ability to concentrate urine, leading to
a fixed specific gravity around 1.010, which is the same as plasma.

,3. A nurse is caring for a patient post-renal biopsy. Which of the following is the
priority nursing intervention?

A. Encourage immediate ambulation

B. Administer prophylactic antibiotics

C. Maintain the patient in a High-Fowler’s position

D. Monitor for hematuria and flank pain

Answer: D
Rationale: Bleeding is the most significant risk after a renal biopsy. Hematuria and flank
pain are signs of internal hemorrhage.

4. A patient with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) has a serum phosphorus level
of 5.8 mg/dL. The nurse should expect to administer which medication with
meals?

A. Epoetin alfa

B. Furosemide

C. Calcium carbonate

D. Calcitriol

Answer: C
Rationale: Calcium carbonate acts as a phosphate binder when taken with meals, helping
to lower serum phosphorus levels in CKD patients.

5. When assessing a patient’s newly created Arteriovenous (AV) fistula, the
nurse notes the absence of a thrill and bruit. What is the nurse’s immediate
action?

A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately

B. Document the finding as normal for a new fistula

C. Apply a warm compress to the site

D. Instruct the patient to perform hand-squeezing exercises

Answer: A

, Rationale: The absence of a thrill (palpated) or bruit (auscultated) suggests fistula
occlusion or failure, which is a medical emergency.

6. Which of the following describes the pathophysiology of Nephrotic
Syndrome?

A. Increased glomerular permeability leading to massive proteinuria

B. Inflammation of the basement membrane leading to hematuria

C. Obstruction of the ureters by calcium stones

D. Ascending infection of the urinary tract to the kidneys

Answer: A
Rationale: Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria due to increased
glomerular permeability, leading to edema and hypoalbuminemia.

7. A patient is diagnosed with Prerenal Acute Kidney Injury. Which of the
following is a common cause of this condition?

A. Aminoglycoside toxicity

B. Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)

C. Acute Glomerulonephritis

D. Hypovolemic shock

Answer: D
Rationale: Prerenal AKI is caused by factors that reduce systemic circulation, such as
hypovolemia or heart failure, leading to decreased renal blood flow.

8. A nurse is teaching a patient about a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine
clearance. Which instruction is correct?

A. Keep the urine at room temperature

B. Discard the first void and then start the timer

C. Include the very first void at the start of the 24 hours

D. Skip any voids that occur during a bowel movement

Answer: B

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