NURS 120: Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing - Week 14
Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to
prevent dislocation?
A. Keep the affected leg in an adducted position.
B. Maintain the client in a high-Fowler’s position.
C. Encourage the client to cross their legs at the ankles.
D. Place an abductor pillow between the client’s legs.
Answer: D
Rationale: To prevent dislocation after a total hip arthroplasty, the hip must be kept in an
abducted position. An abductor pillow or wedge is used to maintain this alignment and
prevent adduction.
2. A client is diagnosed with suspected compartment syndrome in the right
lower leg following a fracture. Which of the following is an early clinical
manifestation?
A. Absence of a pedal pulse
B. Cyanosis of the toes
C. Paresthesia and intense pain on passive stretch
D. Cold skin temperature in the extremity
Answer: C
Rationale: Paresthesia and pain that is out of proportion to the injury or occurs during
passive stretch are early signs of compartment syndrome. Pulselessness and cold skin are
late signs indicating severe ischemia.
,3. Which laboratory value is most indicative of a client’s risk for poor wound
healing in the postoperative phase?
A. White Blood Cell (WBC) count 9,000/mm³
B. Serum Albumin 2.8 g/dL
C. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
D. Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Albumin reflects long-term nutritional status. A level below 3.5 g/dL indicates
protein deficiency, which significantly impairs wound healing and collagen synthesis.
4. During the intraoperative period, the ‘Time Out’ procedure is primarily
conducted to:
A. Allow the surgeon to review the surgical steps.
B. Verify the patient’s insurance information.
C. Check if the anesthesia machine is functioning correctly.
D. Confirm the correct patient, site, and procedure.
Answer: D
Rationale: The ‘Time Out’ is a critical safety verification process performed immediately
before starting a procedure to prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person
surgery.
5. A client with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.4
mEq/L. Which of the following is the priority assessment?
A. Cardiac rhythm via ECG
B. Muscle strength
C. Bowel sounds
D. Skin turgor
Answer: A
, Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) can cause life-threatening cardiac
dysrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation. Monitoring cardiac rhythm is the highest
priority.
6. When assessing a client for Malignant Hyperthermia during surgery, which of
the following is the earliest sign the nurse should observe?
A. Hyperthermia (104°F / 40°C)
B. Tachycardia and increased end-tidal CO2
C. Muscle rigidity
D. Skin mottling
Answer: B
Rationale: While hyperthermia is a classic sign, it is often a late manifestation. Tachycardia
and an increase in end-tidal CO2 (respiratory acidosis) are the earliest indicators.
7. Which of the following interventions is most effective in preventing
postoperative atelectasis?
A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
B. Applying sequential compression devices
C. Using an incentive spirometer 10 times every hour while awake
D. Limiting fluid intake to prevent pulmonary edema
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes deep breathing and lung expansion, which
prevents the collapse of alveoli (atelectasis).
Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative following a total hip
arthroplasty. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize to
prevent dislocation?
A. Keep the affected leg in an adducted position.
B. Maintain the client in a high-Fowler’s position.
C. Encourage the client to cross their legs at the ankles.
D. Place an abductor pillow between the client’s legs.
Answer: D
Rationale: To prevent dislocation after a total hip arthroplasty, the hip must be kept in an
abducted position. An abductor pillow or wedge is used to maintain this alignment and
prevent adduction.
2. A client is diagnosed with suspected compartment syndrome in the right
lower leg following a fracture. Which of the following is an early clinical
manifestation?
A. Absence of a pedal pulse
B. Cyanosis of the toes
C. Paresthesia and intense pain on passive stretch
D. Cold skin temperature in the extremity
Answer: C
Rationale: Paresthesia and pain that is out of proportion to the injury or occurs during
passive stretch are early signs of compartment syndrome. Pulselessness and cold skin are
late signs indicating severe ischemia.
,3. Which laboratory value is most indicative of a client’s risk for poor wound
healing in the postoperative phase?
A. White Blood Cell (WBC) count 9,000/mm³
B. Serum Albumin 2.8 g/dL
C. Hemoglobin 13.5 g/dL
D. Creatinine 0.9 mg/dL
Answer: B
Rationale: Albumin reflects long-term nutritional status. A level below 3.5 g/dL indicates
protein deficiency, which significantly impairs wound healing and collagen synthesis.
4. During the intraoperative period, the ‘Time Out’ procedure is primarily
conducted to:
A. Allow the surgeon to review the surgical steps.
B. Verify the patient’s insurance information.
C. Check if the anesthesia machine is functioning correctly.
D. Confirm the correct patient, site, and procedure.
Answer: D
Rationale: The ‘Time Out’ is a critical safety verification process performed immediately
before starting a procedure to prevent wrong-site, wrong-procedure, and wrong-person
surgery.
5. A client with Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.4
mEq/L. Which of the following is the priority assessment?
A. Cardiac rhythm via ECG
B. Muscle strength
C. Bowel sounds
D. Skin turgor
Answer: A
, Rationale: Hyperkalemia (potassium > 5.0 mEq/L) can cause life-threatening cardiac
dysrhythmias, including ventricular fibrillation. Monitoring cardiac rhythm is the highest
priority.
6. When assessing a client for Malignant Hyperthermia during surgery, which of
the following is the earliest sign the nurse should observe?
A. Hyperthermia (104°F / 40°C)
B. Tachycardia and increased end-tidal CO2
C. Muscle rigidity
D. Skin mottling
Answer: B
Rationale: While hyperthermia is a classic sign, it is often a late manifestation. Tachycardia
and an increase in end-tidal CO2 (respiratory acidosis) are the earliest indicators.
7. Which of the following interventions is most effective in preventing
postoperative atelectasis?
A. Administering prophylactic antibiotics
B. Applying sequential compression devices
C. Using an incentive spirometer 10 times every hour while awake
D. Limiting fluid intake to prevent pulmonary edema
Answer: C
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes deep breathing and lung expansion, which
prevents the collapse of alveoli (atelectasis).
