NURS 120 | Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing | Week 10
Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU
1. A patient with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is being monitored.
Which ECG change is most characteristic of this electrolyte imbalance?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Shortened QT interval
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Prominent U waves
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) typically causes ECG changes such as
flattened or inverted T waves and the presence of prominent U waves.
2. A nurse is calculating fluid resuscitation for a patient who weighs 70 kg and
has 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burns using the Parkland Formula
(4mL/kg/%TBSA). How much fluid should be administered in the first 8 hours?
A. 5600 mL
B. 11200 mL
C. 2800 mL
D. 8400 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: The total 24-hour volume is 4mL x 70kg x 40 = 11,200 mL. Half of this volume
(5,600 mL) must be administered in the first 8 hours.
,3. An arterial blood gas (ABG) result shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3
26 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance does this represent?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Acidosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (<7.35), indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is high (>45 mmHg),
which correlates with the acidic pH, while the HCO3 is normal, indicating respiratory
acidosis.
4. A client with HIV has a CD4+ T-cell count of 180 cells/mm3. How should the
nurse interpret this finding?
A. The client is in the acute stage of HIV infection.
B. The client is experiencing a normal immune response.
C. The client is at low risk for opportunistic infections.
D. The client has reached the clinical stage of AIDS.
Answer: D
Rationale: A CD4+ T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 is a clinical definition for the
diagnosis of AIDS, regardless of the presence of opportunistic infections.
5. Which assessment finding in a patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
(SLE) requires immediate provider notification?
A. Butterfly rash on the face
B. New onset of peripheral edema and weight gain
C. Joint pain in the hands and wrists
D. Fatigue and photosensitivity
Answer: B
, Rationale: New onset edema and weight gain in SLE patients may indicate lupus nephritis,
a serious complication requiring urgent intervention to prevent renal failure.
6. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving chemotherapy who has a neutrophil
count of 400/mm3. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administering an antiemetic before meals
B. Assessing the patient’s temperature every 4 hours
C. Restricting all fresh fruits and vegetables
D. Encouraging increased fluid intake
Answer: B
Rationale: A neutrophil count below 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia. Fever is
often the only sign of infection, making frequent temperature monitoring the priority.
7. A patient presents with Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign. Which
electrolyte deficiency does the nurse suspect?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign (facial twitching) and Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm with BP
cuff) are classic indicators of neuromuscular irritability caused by hypocalcemia.
8. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is exemplified by a patient
experiencing anaphylaxis after a bee sting?
A. Type I (IgE-mediated)
B. Type II (Cytotoxic)
C. Type III (Immune Complex)
D. Type IV (Delayed-type)
Answer: A
Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU
1. A patient with a serum potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L is being monitored.
Which ECG change is most characteristic of this electrolyte imbalance?
A. Tall, peaked T waves
B. Shortened QT interval
C. Widened QRS complex
D. Prominent U waves
Answer: D
Rationale: Hypokalemia (potassium < 3.5 mEq/L) typically causes ECG changes such as
flattened or inverted T waves and the presence of prominent U waves.
2. A nurse is calculating fluid resuscitation for a patient who weighs 70 kg and
has 40% total body surface area (TBSA) burns using the Parkland Formula
(4mL/kg/%TBSA). How much fluid should be administered in the first 8 hours?
A. 5600 mL
B. 11200 mL
C. 2800 mL
D. 8400 mL
Answer: A
Rationale: The total 24-hour volume is 4mL x 70kg x 40 = 11,200 mL. Half of this volume
(5,600 mL) must be administered in the first 8 hours.
,3. An arterial blood gas (ABG) result shows pH 7.30, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3
26 mEq/L. Which acid-base imbalance does this represent?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Respiratory Alkalosis
C. Metabolic Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Acidosis
Answer: A
Rationale: The pH is low (<7.35), indicating acidosis. The PaCO2 is high (>45 mmHg),
which correlates with the acidic pH, while the HCO3 is normal, indicating respiratory
acidosis.
4. A client with HIV has a CD4+ T-cell count of 180 cells/mm3. How should the
nurse interpret this finding?
A. The client is in the acute stage of HIV infection.
B. The client is experiencing a normal immune response.
C. The client is at low risk for opportunistic infections.
D. The client has reached the clinical stage of AIDS.
Answer: D
Rationale: A CD4+ T-cell count below 200 cells/mm3 is a clinical definition for the
diagnosis of AIDS, regardless of the presence of opportunistic infections.
5. Which assessment finding in a patient with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
(SLE) requires immediate provider notification?
A. Butterfly rash on the face
B. New onset of peripheral edema and weight gain
C. Joint pain in the hands and wrists
D. Fatigue and photosensitivity
Answer: B
, Rationale: New onset edema and weight gain in SLE patients may indicate lupus nephritis,
a serious complication requiring urgent intervention to prevent renal failure.
6. The nurse is caring for a patient receiving chemotherapy who has a neutrophil
count of 400/mm3. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administering an antiemetic before meals
B. Assessing the patient’s temperature every 4 hours
C. Restricting all fresh fruits and vegetables
D. Encouraging increased fluid intake
Answer: B
Rationale: A neutrophil count below 500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia. Fever is
often the only sign of infection, making frequent temperature monitoring the priority.
7. A patient presents with Chvostek’s sign and Trousseau’s sign. Which
electrolyte deficiency does the nurse suspect?
A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypomagnesemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Chvostek’s sign (facial twitching) and Trousseau’s sign (carpal spasm with BP
cuff) are classic indicators of neuromuscular irritability caused by hypocalcemia.
8. Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is exemplified by a patient
experiencing anaphylaxis after a bee sting?
A. Type I (IgE-mediated)
B. Type II (Cytotoxic)
C. Type III (Immune Complex)
D. Type IV (Delayed-type)
Answer: A
