NURS 120 | Introduction to Medical-Surgical Nursing | Week 3 Quiz
2026 |WCU
1. When obtaining informed consent for a surgical procedure, which of the
following is the primary responsibility of the nurse?
A. Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient.
B. Providing alternative treatment options to the patient.
C. Witnessing the patient’s signature and ensuring they are competent.
D. Documenting the surgical technique used in the medical record.
Answer: C
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, and benefits.
The nurse’s role is to witness the signature and verify that the patient is competent and
signed voluntarily.
2. A patient scheduled for surgery identifies an allergy to bananas and kiwis.
Which action should the nurse prioritize?
A. Notify the dietary department to exclude these fruits.
B. Document the allergy as a food sensitivity only.
C. Alert the surgical team of a potential latex allergy.
D. Administer an antihistamine before the procedure.
Answer: C
Rationale: Cross-reactivity between certain fruits (bananas, kiwis, avocados) and latex is
common; therefore, a latex-free environment should be maintained.
,3. What is the primary rationale for maintaining a patient NPO (nothing by
mouth) for at least 6 to 8 hours before general anesthesia?
A. To prevent postoperative abdominal distension.
B. To prevent electrolyte imbalances during the procedure.
C. To ensure the patient is ready for a clear liquid diet post-surgery.
D. To reduce the risk of aspiration during induction.
Answer: D
Rationale: General anesthesia relaxes the laryngeal muscles and suppresses the gag reflex,
significantly increasing the risk of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents.
4. A patient takes aspirin 81 mg daily. The nurse should instruct the patient to
stop this medication how many days before elective surgery?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. Stopping is unnecessary for this dose.
D. 7 to 10 days
Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation. To minimize the risk of
intraoperative and postoperative bleeding, it is typically stopped 7 to 10 days prior.
5. When is the most effective time to provide preoperative teaching to a
patient?
A. In the holding area just before surgery.
B. Several days before the surgery or during the pre-admission visit.
C. Immediately upon arrival in the PACU.
D. While the patient is being premedicated.
Answer: B
Rationale: Preoperative teaching is most effective when the patient is not stressed or
under the influence of sedatives, allowing for better retention of information.
, 6. During the ‘Time-Out’ procedure in the operating room, what must be
verified?
A. The patient’s insurance coverage.
B. The surgeon’s credentials.
C. Correct patient identity, surgical site, and procedure.
D. The number of family members in the waiting room.
Answer: C
Rationale: The Time-Out is a safety protocol designed to prevent wrong-site, wrong-
procedure, and wrong-person surgery.
7. Which clinical manifestation is an early sign of malignant hyperthermia?
A. Hyperthermia (temperature of 105 F).
B. Muscle rigidity and tachycardia.
C. Bradypnea and hypotension.
D. Profuse diaphoresis and skin pallor.
Answer: B
Rationale: Tachycardia, tachypnea, and muscle rigidity (especially of the jaw) are early
signs; hyperthermia is often a late sign of this metabolic crisis.
8. Which medication is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Naloxone
B. Dantrolene sodium
C. Atropine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: B
Rationale: Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant that stops the release of calcium from
the sarcoplasmic reticulum, reversing the process of malignant hyperthermia.
2026 |WCU
1. When obtaining informed consent for a surgical procedure, which of the
following is the primary responsibility of the nurse?
A. Explaining the risks and benefits of the procedure to the patient.
B. Providing alternative treatment options to the patient.
C. Witnessing the patient’s signature and ensuring they are competent.
D. Documenting the surgical technique used in the medical record.
Answer: C
Rationale: The surgeon is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, and benefits.
The nurse’s role is to witness the signature and verify that the patient is competent and
signed voluntarily.
2. A patient scheduled for surgery identifies an allergy to bananas and kiwis.
Which action should the nurse prioritize?
A. Notify the dietary department to exclude these fruits.
B. Document the allergy as a food sensitivity only.
C. Alert the surgical team of a potential latex allergy.
D. Administer an antihistamine before the procedure.
Answer: C
Rationale: Cross-reactivity between certain fruits (bananas, kiwis, avocados) and latex is
common; therefore, a latex-free environment should be maintained.
,3. What is the primary rationale for maintaining a patient NPO (nothing by
mouth) for at least 6 to 8 hours before general anesthesia?
A. To prevent postoperative abdominal distension.
B. To prevent electrolyte imbalances during the procedure.
C. To ensure the patient is ready for a clear liquid diet post-surgery.
D. To reduce the risk of aspiration during induction.
Answer: D
Rationale: General anesthesia relaxes the laryngeal muscles and suppresses the gag reflex,
significantly increasing the risk of pulmonary aspiration of gastric contents.
4. A patient takes aspirin 81 mg daily. The nurse should instruct the patient to
stop this medication how many days before elective surgery?
A. 24 hours
B. 48 hours
C. Stopping is unnecessary for this dose.
D. 7 to 10 days
Answer: D
Rationale: Aspirin irreversibly inhibits platelet aggregation. To minimize the risk of
intraoperative and postoperative bleeding, it is typically stopped 7 to 10 days prior.
5. When is the most effective time to provide preoperative teaching to a
patient?
A. In the holding area just before surgery.
B. Several days before the surgery or during the pre-admission visit.
C. Immediately upon arrival in the PACU.
D. While the patient is being premedicated.
Answer: B
Rationale: Preoperative teaching is most effective when the patient is not stressed or
under the influence of sedatives, allowing for better retention of information.
, 6. During the ‘Time-Out’ procedure in the operating room, what must be
verified?
A. The patient’s insurance coverage.
B. The surgeon’s credentials.
C. Correct patient identity, surgical site, and procedure.
D. The number of family members in the waiting room.
Answer: C
Rationale: The Time-Out is a safety protocol designed to prevent wrong-site, wrong-
procedure, and wrong-person surgery.
7. Which clinical manifestation is an early sign of malignant hyperthermia?
A. Hyperthermia (temperature of 105 F).
B. Muscle rigidity and tachycardia.
C. Bradypnea and hypotension.
D. Profuse diaphoresis and skin pallor.
Answer: B
Rationale: Tachycardia, tachypnea, and muscle rigidity (especially of the jaw) are early
signs; hyperthermia is often a late sign of this metabolic crisis.
8. Which medication is the specific antidote for malignant hyperthermia?
A. Naloxone
B. Dantrolene sodium
C. Atropine
D. Epinephrine
Answer: B
Rationale: Dantrolene is a skeletal muscle relaxant that stops the release of calcium from
the sarcoplasmic reticulum, reversing the process of malignant hyperthermia.
