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HESI MEDSURG FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+

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HESI MEDSURG FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS GRADED A+

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HESI MEDSURG FINAL EXAM 2026-2027
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADED A+

Which condition is considered a non-modifiable risk factor for a brain attack?


A) High cholesterol levels.
B) Obesity.
C) History of atrial fibrillation.
D) Advanced age.
D) Advanced age.


Rationale: People over age 55 are a high-risk group for a brain attack because the
incidence of stroke more than doubles in each successive decade of life. Non-
modifiable means the client cannot do anything to change the risk factor. All the
other options are modifiable risk factors.




A client is experiencing homonymous hemianopsia as the result of a brain attack.
Which nursing intervention would the nurse implement to address this condition?


A) Turn Nancy every two hours and perform active range of motion exercises.
B) Place the objects Nancy needs for activities of daily living on the left side of the
table.
C) Speak slowly and clearly to assist Nancy in forming sounds to words.

,D) Request that the dietary department thicken all liquids on Nancy's meal and
snack trays.
B) Place the objects Nancy needs for activities of daily living on the left side of the
table.


Rationale: Homonymous hemianopsia is loss of the visual field on the same side as
the paralyzed side. This results in the client neglecting that side of the body, so it is
beneficial to place objects on that side. Nancy had a left-hemisphere brain attack so
her right side is the weak side. Speaking slowly and clearly would address the
client's verbal deficits due to aphasia. Requesting all liquids to be thickened would
address dysphagia. Turning the client every 2 hours and performing active range of
motion exercises would address the client's risk for immobility due to paralysis.




A physical therapist (PT) places a gait belt on a client and is assisting them with
ambulation from the bed to the chair. As they get up out of the bed, they report
being dizzy and begin to fall. The PT carefully allows them to fall back to the bed
and notifies the primary nurse. Which written documentation should the nurse put
in the client's record?


A) Client experienced orthostatic hypotension when getting out of bed.
B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait
belt was used to allow client to fall back onto the bed.
C) PT notified the primary nurse that the client could not ambulate at this time
because of dizziness.
D) Client had difficulty ambulating from the bed to the chair when accompanied
by the PT, variance report completed.
B) PT reported client complained of dizziness when getting out of bed, and gait
belt was used to allow client to fall back onto the bed.

,Rationale: This documentation provides the factual data of the events that
occurred. A)The nurse is making an assumption that the dizziness was caused by
orthostatic hypotension. C) Not all the pertinent facts are included in this
documentation.
D) A variance report should never be documented in the client's record.




A new nurse graduate is caring for a postoperative client with the following arterial
blood gases (ABGs): pH, 7.30; PCO2, 60 mm Hg; PO2, 80 mm Hg; bicarbonate,
24 mEq/L; and O2 saturation, 96%. Which of these actions by the new graduate is
indicated?


A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.
B) Administer oxygen by nasal cannula.
C) Request a prescription for sodium bicarbonate from the health care provider.
D) Inform the charge nurse that no changes in therapy are needed.
A) Encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer and to cough.


Rationale: Respiratory acidosis is caused by CO2 retention and impaired chest
expansion secondary to anesthesia. The nurse takes steps to promote CO2
elimination, including maintaining a patent airway and expanding the lungs
through breathing techniques. O2 is not indicated because Po2 and oxygen
saturation are within the normal range. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated
because the bicarbonate level is in the normal range; promoting excretion of
respiratory acids is the priority in respiratory acidosis. Post anesthesia, the client
will need interventions as described in A above or may progress to a state of
somnolence and unresponsiveness.

, The nurse is providing dietary instructions to a 68-year-old client who is at high
risk for development of coronary heart disease (CHD). Which information should
the nurse include?


A) Limit dietary selection of cholesterol to 300 mg per day
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.
C) Decrease plant stanols and sterols to less than 2 grams/day.
D) Ensure saturated fat is less than 30% of total caloric intake.
B) Increase intake of soluble fiber to 10 to 25 grams per day.


Rationale: To reduce risk factors associated with coronary heart disease, the daily
intake of soluble fiber (B) should be increased to between 10 and 25 gm.
Cholesterol intake (A) should be limited to 180 mg/day or less. Intake of plant
stanols and sterols is recommended at 2 g/day (C). Saturated fat (D) intake should
be limited to 7% of total daily calories.




A splint is prescribed for nighttime use by a client with rheumatoid arthritis. Which
statement by the nurse provides the most accurate explanation for use of the
splints?


A) Prevention of deformities.
B) Avoidance of joint trauma.
C) Relief of joint inflammation.
D) Improvement in joint strength.
A) Prevention of deformities.

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