NUR 2502 / NUR2502 Final Exam (Latest
): Multidimensional Care III /
MDC 3 - Rasmussen
Q1: A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is prescribed carvedilol.
Which assessment is most critical for the nurse to monitor during initiation?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Blood pressure and heart rate
C. Serum sodium level
D. Urine output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia and
hypotension, requiring close monitoring of blood pressure and heart rate. Rasmussen guidelines
indicate that hemodynamic stability is the priority during beta-blocker initiation.
Q2: A patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) develops premature ventricular contractions
(PVCs). Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer lidocaine
B. Notify the provider
C. Assess for chest pain and vital signs
D. Prepare for defibrillation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because assessing for chest pain and vital signs is the priority to determine if
PVCs are stable or indicate worsening ischemia. Rasmussen guidelines emphasize immediate
assessment before intervention.
,Q3: A patient with cardiogenic shock has a pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) of 25
mmHg. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer diuretics
B. Increase IV fluids
C. Start vasopressors
D. Perform pericardiocentesis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a PAWP >18 mmHg indicates left ventricular failure, and
vasopressors are needed to maintain perfusion. Rasmussen guidelines indicate that
vasopressors are priority for cardiogenic shock with elevated PAWP.
Q4: A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4. Which medication is most
important for stroke prevention?
A. Aspirin
B. Warfarin
C. Clopidogrel
D. Enoxaparin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because warfarin is indicated for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation with a
CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2. Rasmussen guidelines prioritize anticoagulation for high-risk patients.
Q5: A patient with hypertension develops a cough while taking lisinopril. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Discontinue the medication
B. Switch to an ARB
C. Add a diuretic
D. Monitor potassium levels
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because switching to an ARB (angiotensin II receptor blocker) avoids the ACE
inhibitor-induced cough. Rasmussen guidelines indicate ARBs as alternatives for ACE inhibitor
intolerance.
Q6: A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. Which lab value is most
critical to monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because aPTT monitors heparin’s anticoagulant effect. Rasmussen guidelines
specify aPTT as the priority lab for unfractionated heparin therapy.
Q7: A patient with heart failure has a BNP level of 800 pg/mL. What does this indicate?
A. Worsening heart failure
B. Improved cardiac function
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because elevated BNP (>100 pg/mL) indicates heart failure severity, and 800
pg/mL suggests worsening. Rasmussen guidelines link BNP levels to heart failure progression.
Q8: A patient with cardiomyopathy has an ejection fraction of 30%. Which activity restriction is
most appropriate?
A. Bed rest
B. Limited ambulation
, C. No restrictions
D. Avoid heavy lifting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because limited ambulation balances activity with cardiac workload.
Rasmussen guidelines recommend moderate activity restrictions for reduced ejection fraction.
Q9: A patient with infective endocarditis has a temperature of 102°F. Which action is priority?
A. Administer antipyretics
B. Obtain blood cultures
C. Start antibiotics
D. Monitor for emboli
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because blood cultures must be obtained before antibiotics to identify the
pathogen. Rasmussen guidelines prioritize diagnostic testing before treatment.
Q10: A patient with pericarditis has a pericardial friction rub. Which position relieves pain?
A. Supine
B. Left lateral decubitus
C. Sitting upright and leaning forward
D. Prone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because leaning forward reduces pericardial pain. Rasmussen guidelines
indicate this position as optimal for pericarditis pain relief.
Q11: A patient with aortic stenosis has a syncope episode. Which intervention is most critical?
A. Administer fluids
B. Prepare for valve replacement
): Multidimensional Care III /
MDC 3 - Rasmussen
Q1: A patient with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF) is prescribed carvedilol.
Which assessment is most critical for the nurse to monitor during initiation?
A. Serum potassium level
B. Blood pressure and heart rate
C. Serum sodium level
D. Urine output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia and
hypotension, requiring close monitoring of blood pressure and heart rate. Rasmussen guidelines
indicate that hemodynamic stability is the priority during beta-blocker initiation.
Q2: A patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) develops premature ventricular contractions
(PVCs). Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer lidocaine
B. Notify the provider
C. Assess for chest pain and vital signs
D. Prepare for defibrillation
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because assessing for chest pain and vital signs is the priority to determine if
PVCs are stable or indicate worsening ischemia. Rasmussen guidelines emphasize immediate
assessment before intervention.
,Q3: A patient with cardiogenic shock has a pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) of 25
mmHg. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer diuretics
B. Increase IV fluids
C. Start vasopressors
D. Perform pericardiocentesis
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a PAWP >18 mmHg indicates left ventricular failure, and
vasopressors are needed to maintain perfusion. Rasmussen guidelines indicate that
vasopressors are priority for cardiogenic shock with elevated PAWP.
Q4: A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 4. Which medication is most
important for stroke prevention?
A. Aspirin
B. Warfarin
C. Clopidogrel
D. Enoxaparin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because warfarin is indicated for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation with a
CHA₂DS₂-VASc score ≥2. Rasmussen guidelines prioritize anticoagulation for high-risk patients.
Q5: A patient with hypertension develops a cough while taking lisinopril. Which action should
the nurse take?
A. Discontinue the medication
B. Switch to an ARB
C. Add a diuretic
D. Monitor potassium levels
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because switching to an ARB (angiotensin II receptor blocker) avoids the ACE
inhibitor-induced cough. Rasmussen guidelines indicate ARBs as alternatives for ACE inhibitor
intolerance.
Q6: A patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin. Which lab value is most
critical to monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. Serum creatinine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because aPTT monitors heparin’s anticoagulant effect. Rasmussen guidelines
specify aPTT as the priority lab for unfractionated heparin therapy.
Q7: A patient with heart failure has a BNP level of 800 pg/mL. What does this indicate?
A. Worsening heart failure
B. Improved cardiac function
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct because elevated BNP (>100 pg/mL) indicates heart failure severity, and 800
pg/mL suggests worsening. Rasmussen guidelines link BNP levels to heart failure progression.
Q8: A patient with cardiomyopathy has an ejection fraction of 30%. Which activity restriction is
most appropriate?
A. Bed rest
B. Limited ambulation
, C. No restrictions
D. Avoid heavy lifting
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because limited ambulation balances activity with cardiac workload.
Rasmussen guidelines recommend moderate activity restrictions for reduced ejection fraction.
Q9: A patient with infective endocarditis has a temperature of 102°F. Which action is priority?
A. Administer antipyretics
B. Obtain blood cultures
C. Start antibiotics
D. Monitor for emboli
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because blood cultures must be obtained before antibiotics to identify the
pathogen. Rasmussen guidelines prioritize diagnostic testing before treatment.
Q10: A patient with pericarditis has a pericardial friction rub. Which position relieves pain?
A. Supine
B. Left lateral decubitus
C. Sitting upright and leaning forward
D. Prone
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because leaning forward reduces pericardial pain. Rasmussen guidelines
indicate this position as optimal for pericarditis pain relief.
Q11: A patient with aortic stenosis has a syncope episode. Which intervention is most critical?
A. Administer fluids
B. Prepare for valve replacement
