NSG 550 Exam 3: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) MRI/MRA, Cervical
Screening, Osteoporosis, Anemia, BPH & Diagnostics | Q&A | Grade A |
100% Correct (Verified Answers)
Subject: Advanced Diagnostic Imaging / Hematology / Women's Health
Source: NSG 550 Exam 3 – Comprehensive Review Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
1: What is MRI?
Correct Answer: Magnetic Resonance Imaging; a medical imaging technique that uses
magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the body.
1. No ionizing radiation; superior soft tissue contrast.
2. Contraindicated with certain metal implants (pacemakers, aneurysm clips).
3. Long scan time; patient must remain still.
2: What is MRA?
Correct Answer: Magnetic Resonance Angiography; a specialized type of MRI specifically
designed to image blood vessels and blood flow.
1. Visualizes arteries and veins without contrast or with gadolinium.
2. Used for cerebral vessels, renal arteries, peripheral vessels.
3. Time-of-flight MRA does not require contrast.
3: What are the uses of MRI?
Correct Answer: Ordered when provider suspects spinal cord or brain injuries, joint
problems, ligaments, tendons and muscles, tumors, certain neurological issues, bone
infections, headaches with neuro symptoms, suspicion of a fracture after injury, or when
neuro symptoms such as numbness, weakness or tingling are present.
1. Gold standard for multiple sclerosis, spinal cord pathology.
2. Best for soft tissue detail (muscles, ligaments, cartilage).
3. Brain MRI for tumors, stroke, infection, hemorrhage.
4: What are the uses of MRA?
Correct Answer: Used for stroke or transient ischemic attack, heart disease to assess the
vessels of the heart, or to plan a procedure like stent placement.
1. Carotid MRA for stenosis evaluating stroke risk.
2. Renal MRA for suspected renal artery stenosis (hypertension).p>
3. Intracranial MRA for aneurysm or AV malformation.
, 5: What is the Bethesda Result?
Correct Answer: A standardized system used to classify thyroid nodules based on fine
needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy results.
1. Categories I-VI guide malignancy risk and management.
2. Higher category = higher cancer risk.
3. Category IV often requires surgical lobectomy or thyroidectomy.
6: What is Bethesda Category I?
Correct Answer: Nondiagnostic/Unsatisfactory; sample is inadequate for diagnosis.
1. Repeat FNA with ultrasound guidance.
2. Often due to low cellularity or bloody sample.
3. Risk of malignancy ~5-10%.
7: What is Bethesda Category II?
Correct Answer: Benign; cells appear normal with low risk.
1. Malignancy risk <3%.
2. Routine follow-up with ultrasound.
3. No surgery indicated.
8: What is Bethesda Category III?
Correct Answer: Atypia of Undetermined Significance (AUS) or Follicular Lesion of
Undetermined Significance (FLUS); cells show some abnormalities, but it is unclear if they
are cancerous, requiring further investigation.
1. Malignancy risk ~10-15%.
2. May repeat FNA, perform molecular testing, or consider lobectomy.
3. Heterogeneous category with variable management.
9: What is Bethesda Category IV?
Correct Answer: Follicular Neoplasm (FN) or Suspicious for Follicular Neoplasm (SFN); cells
suggest possible follicular tumor, which could be benign or cancerous.
1. Malignancy risk ~25-30%.
2. Surgical lobectomy or thyroidectomy required (FNA cannot distinguish benign vs malignant
follicular lesion).
3. Capsular/vascular invasion on surgical pathology determines malignancy.
10: What is Bethesda Category V?
Correct Answer: Suspicious for Malignancy; cells show strong evidence of cancer, but
further testing may be needed to confirm diagnosis.
1. Malignancy risk ~50-75%.
2. Usually proceeds to thyroidectomy.
3. Often suspicious for papillary carcinoma.
Screening, Osteoporosis, Anemia, BPH & Diagnostics | Q&A | Grade A |
100% Correct (Verified Answers)
Subject: Advanced Diagnostic Imaging / Hematology / Women's Health
Source: NSG 550 Exam 3 – Comprehensive Review Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
1: What is MRI?
Correct Answer: Magnetic Resonance Imaging; a medical imaging technique that uses
magnetic fields and radio waves to create detailed images of the body.
1. No ionizing radiation; superior soft tissue contrast.
2. Contraindicated with certain metal implants (pacemakers, aneurysm clips).
3. Long scan time; patient must remain still.
2: What is MRA?
Correct Answer: Magnetic Resonance Angiography; a specialized type of MRI specifically
designed to image blood vessels and blood flow.
1. Visualizes arteries and veins without contrast or with gadolinium.
2. Used for cerebral vessels, renal arteries, peripheral vessels.
3. Time-of-flight MRA does not require contrast.
3: What are the uses of MRI?
Correct Answer: Ordered when provider suspects spinal cord or brain injuries, joint
problems, ligaments, tendons and muscles, tumors, certain neurological issues, bone
infections, headaches with neuro symptoms, suspicion of a fracture after injury, or when
neuro symptoms such as numbness, weakness or tingling are present.
1. Gold standard for multiple sclerosis, spinal cord pathology.
2. Best for soft tissue detail (muscles, ligaments, cartilage).
3. Brain MRI for tumors, stroke, infection, hemorrhage.
4: What are the uses of MRA?
Correct Answer: Used for stroke or transient ischemic attack, heart disease to assess the
vessels of the heart, or to plan a procedure like stent placement.
1. Carotid MRA for stenosis evaluating stroke risk.
2. Renal MRA for suspected renal artery stenosis (hypertension).p>
3. Intracranial MRA for aneurysm or AV malformation.
, 5: What is the Bethesda Result?
Correct Answer: A standardized system used to classify thyroid nodules based on fine
needle aspiration (FNA) biopsy results.
1. Categories I-VI guide malignancy risk and management.
2. Higher category = higher cancer risk.
3. Category IV often requires surgical lobectomy or thyroidectomy.
6: What is Bethesda Category I?
Correct Answer: Nondiagnostic/Unsatisfactory; sample is inadequate for diagnosis.
1. Repeat FNA with ultrasound guidance.
2. Often due to low cellularity or bloody sample.
3. Risk of malignancy ~5-10%.
7: What is Bethesda Category II?
Correct Answer: Benign; cells appear normal with low risk.
1. Malignancy risk <3%.
2. Routine follow-up with ultrasound.
3. No surgery indicated.
8: What is Bethesda Category III?
Correct Answer: Atypia of Undetermined Significance (AUS) or Follicular Lesion of
Undetermined Significance (FLUS); cells show some abnormalities, but it is unclear if they
are cancerous, requiring further investigation.
1. Malignancy risk ~10-15%.
2. May repeat FNA, perform molecular testing, or consider lobectomy.
3. Heterogeneous category with variable management.
9: What is Bethesda Category IV?
Correct Answer: Follicular Neoplasm (FN) or Suspicious for Follicular Neoplasm (SFN); cells
suggest possible follicular tumor, which could be benign or cancerous.
1. Malignancy risk ~25-30%.
2. Surgical lobectomy or thyroidectomy required (FNA cannot distinguish benign vs malignant
follicular lesion).
3. Capsular/vascular invasion on surgical pathology determines malignancy.
10: What is Bethesda Category V?
Correct Answer: Suspicious for Malignancy; cells show strong evidence of cancer, but
further testing may be needed to confirm diagnosis.
1. Malignancy risk ~50-75%.
2. Usually proceeds to thyroidectomy.
3. Often suspicious for papillary carcinoma.
