NSG 550 Quiz 3: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Women's Health, Breast
Imaging, Genetic & Infectious Disease Testing | Q&A | Grade A | 100%
Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 550 – Advanced Diagnostics / Reproductive & Genetic Testing
Source: NSG 550 Quiz 3 Blueprint 2026/2027 Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. What are the current mammography recommendations and what is BI-RADS?
Correct Answer: USPSTF: begin every 2-year screening at age 50, discontinue at 75; may start in 40s depending on
risk factors. Others recommend annual starting at 40. Mammography may have false negatives; if exam differs from
imaging, trust clinical exam findings and continue workup. BI-RADS is a standardized reporting and quality
assurance system (categories 0-6).
1. BI-RADS 0: incomplete; 1: negative; 2: benign; 3: probably benign; 4: suspicious; 5: highly suspicious; 6: known
malignancy.
2. Clinical breast exam > imaging when discordant; false negative rate ~10-15% (especially dense breasts).
3. Screening interval varies by organization; shared decision-making for women 40-49.
2. What is the recommended frequency for clinical breast exam?
Correct Answer: For average-risk asymptomatic women: every 1-3 years for ages 25-39; every year for ages 40 and
older
1. Clinical breast exam (CBE) complements mammography but not a replacement.
2. ACR and SBI no longer recommend routine CBE for average-risk women (weak evidence).
3. High-risk women (BRCA, strong family history) may need more frequent exams.
3. How does blood typing (ABO/Rh) work?
Correct Answer: The blood of one person differs from another due to antigens on erythrocyte surfaces. The major
method is ABO system (types A, B, O, AB). The other major method is Rh factor (Rh+ and Rh-).
1. Type O: no A/B antigens (universal donor for RBCs). Type AB: universal recipient for RBCs.
2. Rh incompatibility: Rh- mother with Rh+ fetus → anti-D antibodies → hemolytic disease of newborn.
3. Crossmatch required before transfusion to prevent hemolytic reactions.
4. What is cytomegalovirus (CMV) and how is it tested?
Correct Answer: A group of large herpes-type viruses found in most body fluids, often causing asymptomatic
infection but can cause serious illness in immunocompromised individuals or when passed from mother to unborn
child. Testing includes CMV IgM/IgG serology, viral culture, or PCR (blood/urine/saliva).
1. Primary CMV infection in pregnancy can cause congenital CMV (hearing loss, microcephaly).
2. IgG avidity testing distinguishes recent vs remote infection.
3. Immunocompromised patients: PCR monitoring for reactivation.
5. What are the three major estrogens and their roles?
Correct Answer: Estradiol (E2): most potent, produced in ovary, peaks during ovulatory phase; used to evaluate
menstrual/fertility problems, menopausal status, gynecomastia, feminization syndromes, or as tumor marker for
ovarian tumors. Estrone (E1): secreted by ovary but mostly converted from androstenedione in peripheral tissues –
major circulating estrogen after menopause. Estriol (E3): major estrogen in pregnancy; urine/blood studies assess
placental function and fetal normality in high-risk pregnancies.
1. E2 level in IVF monitoring guides follicle development and hCG timing.
2. Low E1/E2 ratio post-menopause; hormone replacement therapy decision-making.
3. Low E3 suggests placental insufficiency or Down syndrome (part of quad screen).
, 6. What is luteinizing hormone (LH) and its function?
Correct Answer: Made in pituitary gland; triggers release of egg from ovary (ovulation). LH works closely with FSH
to control sexual function. LH surge (peak) occurs just before ovulation.
1. Ovulation predictor kits detect LH surge 24-36 hours before ovulation.
2. Elevated LH with low FSH suggests polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
3. In males, LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone.
7. What is follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and its function?
Correct Answer: Tropic hormone from anterior pituitary targeting gonads. In females: stimulates ovaries to
develop follicles (oogenesis) and secrete estrogen; controls menstrual cycle with highest levels just before
ovulation. In males: stimulates spermatogenesis.
1. Elevated FSH with low estrogen indicates ovarian insufficiency (menopause, POI).
2. Low FSH with low estrogen suggests hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
3. Day 3 FSH level >10 suggest diminished ovarian reserve.
8. What is the schedule for routine maternal prenatal testing?
Correct Answer: AFP (alpha-fetoprotein): 16-18 weeks; glucose screening: 24-28 weeks; Group B strep (GBS): 35-36
weeks
1. Quad screen (AFP, hCG, estriol, inhibin A) for neural tube defects and aneuploidy.
2. Glucose challenge test (1-hour, 50g) at 24-28 weeks; if >140, proceed to 3-hour OGTT.
3. GBS rectovaginal culture at 35-37 weeks; intrapartum prophylaxis if positive.
9. What is newborn metabolic screening (heel stick) and what does it test for?
Correct Answer: Heel prick blood spot test; screens for PKU (phenylketonuria), maple syrup urine disease,
galactosemia, congenital hypothyroidism, and many other inborn errors of metabolism (varies by state).
1. Collect after 24 hours of feeding to detect disorders requiring protein feeding.
2. Critical for preventing intellectual disability (PKU) or death (galactosemia).
3. False positives common; confirmatory plasma amino acids/organic acids.
10. What is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and its role?
Correct Answer: Hormone produced by the placenta to sustain pregnancy by stimulating the ovaries to produce
estrogen and progesterone
1. Detectable in serum 8-11 days after conception; urine test sensitive at missed period.
2. Quantitative hCG doubling every 48 hours in early viable intrauterine pregnancy.
3. Also elevated in molar pregnancy, choriocarcinoma, germ cell tumors (testicular, ovarian).
11. What is a progesterone assay used for and how is it measured?
Correct Answer: Assesses if ovulation is occurring; occurs predictably around time of LH peak. ELISA (quick,
moderately accurate) – OvuCheck, PreMate slide color change; RIA (slow, very accurate) – slower turnaround or
chemiluminescence.
1. Mid-luteal progesterone (day 21 of 28-day cycle) >3 ng/mL confirms ovulation.p>2. Low progesterone suggests
anovulation, luteal phase defect, or ectopic pregnancy.
3. Monitoring ovulation induction (clomiphene, gonadotropins).
12. What is a rubella antibody titer used for?
Correct Answer: Assesses level of antibody against rubella in patient's blood to determine whether a woman is
immune to rubella (protect against congenital rubella syndrome).
1. Rubella IgG ≥10 IU/mL indicates immunity (prior infection or vaccination).
2. Non-immune pregnant women must avoid exposure and receive MMR postpartum.
3. Congenital rubella syndrome: cataracts, heart defects (PDA), sensorineural hearing loss.
Imaging, Genetic & Infectious Disease Testing | Q&A | Grade A | 100%
Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 550 – Advanced Diagnostics / Reproductive & Genetic Testing
Source: NSG 550 Quiz 3 Blueprint 2026/2027 Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. What are the current mammography recommendations and what is BI-RADS?
Correct Answer: USPSTF: begin every 2-year screening at age 50, discontinue at 75; may start in 40s depending on
risk factors. Others recommend annual starting at 40. Mammography may have false negatives; if exam differs from
imaging, trust clinical exam findings and continue workup. BI-RADS is a standardized reporting and quality
assurance system (categories 0-6).
1. BI-RADS 0: incomplete; 1: negative; 2: benign; 3: probably benign; 4: suspicious; 5: highly suspicious; 6: known
malignancy.
2. Clinical breast exam > imaging when discordant; false negative rate ~10-15% (especially dense breasts).
3. Screening interval varies by organization; shared decision-making for women 40-49.
2. What is the recommended frequency for clinical breast exam?
Correct Answer: For average-risk asymptomatic women: every 1-3 years for ages 25-39; every year for ages 40 and
older
1. Clinical breast exam (CBE) complements mammography but not a replacement.
2. ACR and SBI no longer recommend routine CBE for average-risk women (weak evidence).
3. High-risk women (BRCA, strong family history) may need more frequent exams.
3. How does blood typing (ABO/Rh) work?
Correct Answer: The blood of one person differs from another due to antigens on erythrocyte surfaces. The major
method is ABO system (types A, B, O, AB). The other major method is Rh factor (Rh+ and Rh-).
1. Type O: no A/B antigens (universal donor for RBCs). Type AB: universal recipient for RBCs.
2. Rh incompatibility: Rh- mother with Rh+ fetus → anti-D antibodies → hemolytic disease of newborn.
3. Crossmatch required before transfusion to prevent hemolytic reactions.
4. What is cytomegalovirus (CMV) and how is it tested?
Correct Answer: A group of large herpes-type viruses found in most body fluids, often causing asymptomatic
infection but can cause serious illness in immunocompromised individuals or when passed from mother to unborn
child. Testing includes CMV IgM/IgG serology, viral culture, or PCR (blood/urine/saliva).
1. Primary CMV infection in pregnancy can cause congenital CMV (hearing loss, microcephaly).
2. IgG avidity testing distinguishes recent vs remote infection.
3. Immunocompromised patients: PCR monitoring for reactivation.
5. What are the three major estrogens and their roles?
Correct Answer: Estradiol (E2): most potent, produced in ovary, peaks during ovulatory phase; used to evaluate
menstrual/fertility problems, menopausal status, gynecomastia, feminization syndromes, or as tumor marker for
ovarian tumors. Estrone (E1): secreted by ovary but mostly converted from androstenedione in peripheral tissues –
major circulating estrogen after menopause. Estriol (E3): major estrogen in pregnancy; urine/blood studies assess
placental function and fetal normality in high-risk pregnancies.
1. E2 level in IVF monitoring guides follicle development and hCG timing.
2. Low E1/E2 ratio post-menopause; hormone replacement therapy decision-making.
3. Low E3 suggests placental insufficiency or Down syndrome (part of quad screen).
, 6. What is luteinizing hormone (LH) and its function?
Correct Answer: Made in pituitary gland; triggers release of egg from ovary (ovulation). LH works closely with FSH
to control sexual function. LH surge (peak) occurs just before ovulation.
1. Ovulation predictor kits detect LH surge 24-36 hours before ovulation.
2. Elevated LH with low FSH suggests polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS).
3. In males, LH stimulates Leydig cells to produce testosterone.
7. What is follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and its function?
Correct Answer: Tropic hormone from anterior pituitary targeting gonads. In females: stimulates ovaries to
develop follicles (oogenesis) and secrete estrogen; controls menstrual cycle with highest levels just before
ovulation. In males: stimulates spermatogenesis.
1. Elevated FSH with low estrogen indicates ovarian insufficiency (menopause, POI).
2. Low FSH with low estrogen suggests hypogonadotropic hypogonadism.
3. Day 3 FSH level >10 suggest diminished ovarian reserve.
8. What is the schedule for routine maternal prenatal testing?
Correct Answer: AFP (alpha-fetoprotein): 16-18 weeks; glucose screening: 24-28 weeks; Group B strep (GBS): 35-36
weeks
1. Quad screen (AFP, hCG, estriol, inhibin A) for neural tube defects and aneuploidy.
2. Glucose challenge test (1-hour, 50g) at 24-28 weeks; if >140, proceed to 3-hour OGTT.
3. GBS rectovaginal culture at 35-37 weeks; intrapartum prophylaxis if positive.
9. What is newborn metabolic screening (heel stick) and what does it test for?
Correct Answer: Heel prick blood spot test; screens for PKU (phenylketonuria), maple syrup urine disease,
galactosemia, congenital hypothyroidism, and many other inborn errors of metabolism (varies by state).
1. Collect after 24 hours of feeding to detect disorders requiring protein feeding.
2. Critical for preventing intellectual disability (PKU) or death (galactosemia).
3. False positives common; confirmatory plasma amino acids/organic acids.
10. What is human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) and its role?
Correct Answer: Hormone produced by the placenta to sustain pregnancy by stimulating the ovaries to produce
estrogen and progesterone
1. Detectable in serum 8-11 days after conception; urine test sensitive at missed period.
2. Quantitative hCG doubling every 48 hours in early viable intrauterine pregnancy.
3. Also elevated in molar pregnancy, choriocarcinoma, germ cell tumors (testicular, ovarian).
11. What is a progesterone assay used for and how is it measured?
Correct Answer: Assesses if ovulation is occurring; occurs predictably around time of LH peak. ELISA (quick,
moderately accurate) – OvuCheck, PreMate slide color change; RIA (slow, very accurate) – slower turnaround or
chemiluminescence.
1. Mid-luteal progesterone (day 21 of 28-day cycle) >3 ng/mL confirms ovulation.p>2. Low progesterone suggests
anovulation, luteal phase defect, or ectopic pregnancy.
3. Monitoring ovulation induction (clomiphene, gonadotropins).
12. What is a rubella antibody titer used for?
Correct Answer: Assesses level of antibody against rubella in patient's blood to determine whether a woman is
immune to rubella (protect against congenital rubella syndrome).
1. Rubella IgG ≥10 IU/mL indicates immunity (prior infection or vaccination).
2. Non-immune pregnant women must avoid exposure and receive MMR postpartum.
3. Congenital rubella syndrome: cataracts, heart defects (PDA), sensorineural hearing loss.
