NSG 320 Exam 1: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Pediatric Nursing,
Meningitis, Immunizations, Genetic Disorders & Growth/Development |
Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 320 – Pediatric Nursing / Medical-Surgical Source: NSG 320 Exam 1 Blueprint 2026/2027
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. What are the two types of meningitis and which is worse?
Correct Answer: Bacterial and viral; bacterial meningitis is worse (more severe, higher mortality, can cause hearing
loss, hydrocephalus, death)
1. Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency; pathogens: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae type b.
2. Viral meningitis is usually self-limited; supportive care.
3. Both present with fever, stiff neck, HA, change in LOC; CSF analysis distinguishes.
2. How does bacterial meningitis enter the body and cause infection?
Correct Answer: Bacteria enter via saliva, nasal discharge, feces, sharing drinks/utensils; enters nasopharynx →
bacteremia → crosses blood-brain barrier → infects meninges (TRUE statement).
1. Colonization of nasopharynx precedes invasive disease (carrier state).
2. Vaccines (Hib, PCV13, MenACWY) prevent many cases.
3. Household contacts require chemoprophylaxis (rifampin, ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone).
3. What are treatment and nursing interventions for bacterial meningitis?
Correct Answer: Immediate hospitalization, IV antibiotics (empiric then sensitive), corticosteroids
(dexamethasone), droplet isolation, supportive care, monitor for increased ICP, manage fever/pain, hydration.
1. Antibiotics within 1 hour (empiric: ceftriaxone + vancomycin).
2. Dexamethasone reduces neurologic sequelae (given first dose before or with antibiotic).
3. Droplet precautions for 24 hours after effective antibiotics started.
4. What is impetigo and its treatment?
Correct Answer: Common skin condition in toddler/preschool, etiology: Staphylococcus aureus. Assessment:
reddish macule, vesicular rupture, honey-colored crust, pruritus. Interventions: Burrow solution compresses, topical
mupirocin (Bactroban).
1. Impetigo is highly contagious (direct contact).
2. Oral antibiotics for extensive lesions (cephalexin).
3. Keep fingernails short to prevent scratching and spread.
5. What is scarlet fever and its treatment?
Correct Answer: Strep throat toxin causing sandpaper rash (peak age 4-8). Etiology: Group A streptococci (droplet
transmission). S/S: fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, sandpaper rash, pallor around mouth, white tongue with
red papillae (strawberry tongue). Treatment: penicillin or amoxicillin, fluids, cool mist humidifier, acetaminophen.
1. Complications if untreated: rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis.
2. Contagious until 24 hours after antibiotics started; replace toothbrush.
3. Rash starts on chest/groin, then spreads; desquamation occurs later.
, 6. What is pertussis (whooping cough) and its stages?
Correct Answer: Acute respiratory disorder causing terrible cough; etiology: Bordetella pertussis. Stage 1
(catarrhal): URI symptoms 1-2 weeks; Stage 2 (paroxysmal): intense coughing fits (1-6 weeks; infants may have
apnea without whoop); Stage 3 (convalescent): chronic cough up to 10 weeks (100-day cough).
Complication: pneumonia; treatment: macrolide antibiotics (azithromycin).
2. Droplet precautions; prevention: DTaP/Tdap vaccine.
3. Infants <6 months at highest risk for severe disease.
7. What is rubeola (measles) and its manifestations?
Correct Answer: Viral illness; incubation 8-12 days. Prodromal: coryza, cough, conjunctivitis, fever, Koplik spots
(small red spots with bluish-white center in mouth). Rash: brownish-red macular rash starts at hairline, spreads
downward. Management: vitamin A supplementation, supportive care, isolation for 5 days after rash.
1. Airborne precautions; communicable 1-2 days before prodrome to 4 days after rash.
2. Complications: pneumonia (most common cause of death), encephalitis, otitis media.
3. Avoid exposure to pregnant women (congenital measles).
8. What are the causes, symptoms, and treatments of conjunctivitis (pink eye)?
Correct Answer: Bacterial: Moraxella, Strep pneumo, H. flu → thick purulent drainage, treat with topical antibiotics.
Viral: adenovirus → watery discharge, itching, self-limited, treat with artificial tears. Allergic: redness, itching, eyelid
edema, no drainage, treat with antihistamines. Foreign body: sudden onset, tearing, gritty sensation.
1. Bacterial: spread by contact; viral highly contagious (hand-eye).
2. HSV conjunctivitis requires antiviral (acyclovir).
3. Newborn conjunctivitis prophylaxis: erythromycin ointment at birth.
9. What is pinworms and how is it treated?
Correct Answer: Etiology: Enterobius vermicularis (roundworm). Assessment: anal itching (especially at night).
Diagnosis: tape test (visualization after sleep). Treatment: mebendazole (Vermox) initially and repeat in 2 weeks;
treat household members. Education: hand washing, keep nails short, wash linens.
1. Most common helminth infection in children; relatively harmless.
2. Spread by hand-mouth contact; eggs on fomites survive 2-3 weeks.
3. Morning shower removes eggs before sampling.
10. What are the vaccination schedules by age?
Correct Answer: Birth: Hep B; 2 months: Hep B, RV, DTaP, Hib, PCV13, IPV; 4 months: RV, DTaP, Hib, PCV13, IPV; 6
months: Hep B, RV, DTaP, Hib, PCV13, IPV, flu (optional); 12 months: MMR, Hep A, PCV13; 15 months: Varicella,
DTaP, Hib; 18 months: Hep A; 4 years: DTaP, IPV, MMR, Varicella.
1. SQ immunizations: IPV, MMR, Varicella. Oral: Rotavirus.
2. Permanent contraindications: anaphylaxis, encephalopathy after pertussis vaccine.
3. Temporary: moderate/severe illness, pregnancy (live vaccines), immunocompromised.
11. What is PKU (phenylketonuria)?
Correct Answer: Etiology: mutation of PAH gene on chromosome 12 → enzyme deficiency → accumulation of
phenylalanine, deficiency of tyrosine. Clinical manifestations (after several months): musty odor, microcephaly,
hypopigmentation, hyperactivity, seizures, developmental delays.
1. Newborn screening after first protein feeding; high phenylalanine indicates PKU.
2. Treatment: lifelong low-phenylalanine diet (restrict meat, dairy, nuts, grains).
3. Untreated leads to severe intellectual disability.
4. Maternal PKU requires diet control before pregnancy (prevents congenital abnormalities).
12. What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive (males). Mutation in dystrophin gene → loss of dystrophin protein → muscle
weakening/atrophy. Initial signs (3-5 years): hypotonia, reduced head control; age 2-3: weakness, ambulation
difficulties, Gowers sign (patient uses hands to "walk up" legs to stand), pseudo-hypertrophy of calves.
1. Diagnosis: CK elevated (100x normal), genetic testing, muscle biopsy.
2. Interventions: corticosteroids (prednisone, deflazacort), calcium supplements, orthotics, mobility aids.
3. Progressive cardiomyopathy and respiratory failure; death ~30 years.
Meningitis, Immunizations, Genetic Disorders & Growth/Development |
Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 320 – Pediatric Nursing / Medical-Surgical Source: NSG 320 Exam 1 Blueprint 2026/2027
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. What are the two types of meningitis and which is worse?
Correct Answer: Bacterial and viral; bacterial meningitis is worse (more severe, higher mortality, can cause hearing
loss, hydrocephalus, death)
1. Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency; pathogens: Neisseria meningitidis, Streptococcus pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae type b.
2. Viral meningitis is usually self-limited; supportive care.
3. Both present with fever, stiff neck, HA, change in LOC; CSF analysis distinguishes.
2. How does bacterial meningitis enter the body and cause infection?
Correct Answer: Bacteria enter via saliva, nasal discharge, feces, sharing drinks/utensils; enters nasopharynx →
bacteremia → crosses blood-brain barrier → infects meninges (TRUE statement).
1. Colonization of nasopharynx precedes invasive disease (carrier state).
2. Vaccines (Hib, PCV13, MenACWY) prevent many cases.
3. Household contacts require chemoprophylaxis (rifampin, ciprofloxacin, ceftriaxone).
3. What are treatment and nursing interventions for bacterial meningitis?
Correct Answer: Immediate hospitalization, IV antibiotics (empiric then sensitive), corticosteroids
(dexamethasone), droplet isolation, supportive care, monitor for increased ICP, manage fever/pain, hydration.
1. Antibiotics within 1 hour (empiric: ceftriaxone + vancomycin).
2. Dexamethasone reduces neurologic sequelae (given first dose before or with antibiotic).
3. Droplet precautions for 24 hours after effective antibiotics started.
4. What is impetigo and its treatment?
Correct Answer: Common skin condition in toddler/preschool, etiology: Staphylococcus aureus. Assessment:
reddish macule, vesicular rupture, honey-colored crust, pruritus. Interventions: Burrow solution compresses, topical
mupirocin (Bactroban).
1. Impetigo is highly contagious (direct contact).
2. Oral antibiotics for extensive lesions (cephalexin).
3. Keep fingernails short to prevent scratching and spread.
5. What is scarlet fever and its treatment?
Correct Answer: Strep throat toxin causing sandpaper rash (peak age 4-8). Etiology: Group A streptococci (droplet
transmission). S/S: fever, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, sandpaper rash, pallor around mouth, white tongue with
red papillae (strawberry tongue). Treatment: penicillin or amoxicillin, fluids, cool mist humidifier, acetaminophen.
1. Complications if untreated: rheumatic fever, glomerulonephritis.
2. Contagious until 24 hours after antibiotics started; replace toothbrush.
3. Rash starts on chest/groin, then spreads; desquamation occurs later.
, 6. What is pertussis (whooping cough) and its stages?
Correct Answer: Acute respiratory disorder causing terrible cough; etiology: Bordetella pertussis. Stage 1
(catarrhal): URI symptoms 1-2 weeks; Stage 2 (paroxysmal): intense coughing fits (1-6 weeks; infants may have
apnea without whoop); Stage 3 (convalescent): chronic cough up to 10 weeks (100-day cough).
Complication: pneumonia; treatment: macrolide antibiotics (azithromycin).
2. Droplet precautions; prevention: DTaP/Tdap vaccine.
3. Infants <6 months at highest risk for severe disease.
7. What is rubeola (measles) and its manifestations?
Correct Answer: Viral illness; incubation 8-12 days. Prodromal: coryza, cough, conjunctivitis, fever, Koplik spots
(small red spots with bluish-white center in mouth). Rash: brownish-red macular rash starts at hairline, spreads
downward. Management: vitamin A supplementation, supportive care, isolation for 5 days after rash.
1. Airborne precautions; communicable 1-2 days before prodrome to 4 days after rash.
2. Complications: pneumonia (most common cause of death), encephalitis, otitis media.
3. Avoid exposure to pregnant women (congenital measles).
8. What are the causes, symptoms, and treatments of conjunctivitis (pink eye)?
Correct Answer: Bacterial: Moraxella, Strep pneumo, H. flu → thick purulent drainage, treat with topical antibiotics.
Viral: adenovirus → watery discharge, itching, self-limited, treat with artificial tears. Allergic: redness, itching, eyelid
edema, no drainage, treat with antihistamines. Foreign body: sudden onset, tearing, gritty sensation.
1. Bacterial: spread by contact; viral highly contagious (hand-eye).
2. HSV conjunctivitis requires antiviral (acyclovir).
3. Newborn conjunctivitis prophylaxis: erythromycin ointment at birth.
9. What is pinworms and how is it treated?
Correct Answer: Etiology: Enterobius vermicularis (roundworm). Assessment: anal itching (especially at night).
Diagnosis: tape test (visualization after sleep). Treatment: mebendazole (Vermox) initially and repeat in 2 weeks;
treat household members. Education: hand washing, keep nails short, wash linens.
1. Most common helminth infection in children; relatively harmless.
2. Spread by hand-mouth contact; eggs on fomites survive 2-3 weeks.
3. Morning shower removes eggs before sampling.
10. What are the vaccination schedules by age?
Correct Answer: Birth: Hep B; 2 months: Hep B, RV, DTaP, Hib, PCV13, IPV; 4 months: RV, DTaP, Hib, PCV13, IPV; 6
months: Hep B, RV, DTaP, Hib, PCV13, IPV, flu (optional); 12 months: MMR, Hep A, PCV13; 15 months: Varicella,
DTaP, Hib; 18 months: Hep A; 4 years: DTaP, IPV, MMR, Varicella.
1. SQ immunizations: IPV, MMR, Varicella. Oral: Rotavirus.
2. Permanent contraindications: anaphylaxis, encephalopathy after pertussis vaccine.
3. Temporary: moderate/severe illness, pregnancy (live vaccines), immunocompromised.
11. What is PKU (phenylketonuria)?
Correct Answer: Etiology: mutation of PAH gene on chromosome 12 → enzyme deficiency → accumulation of
phenylalanine, deficiency of tyrosine. Clinical manifestations (after several months): musty odor, microcephaly,
hypopigmentation, hyperactivity, seizures, developmental delays.
1. Newborn screening after first protein feeding; high phenylalanine indicates PKU.
2. Treatment: lifelong low-phenylalanine diet (restrict meat, dairy, nuts, grains).
3. Untreated leads to severe intellectual disability.
4. Maternal PKU requires diet control before pregnancy (prevents congenital abnormalities).
12. What is Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?
Correct Answer: X-linked recessive (males). Mutation in dystrophin gene → loss of dystrophin protein → muscle
weakening/atrophy. Initial signs (3-5 years): hypotonia, reduced head control; age 2-3: weakness, ambulation
difficulties, Gowers sign (patient uses hands to "walk up" legs to stand), pseudo-hypertrophy of calves.
1. Diagnosis: CK elevated (100x normal), genetic testing, muscle biopsy.
2. Interventions: corticosteroids (prednisone, deflazacort), calcium supplements, orthotics, mobility aids.
3. Progressive cardiomyopathy and respiratory failure; death ~30 years.
