1
Comprehensive ATI Notes with Complete Solutions
Nursing Study Guide Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed
Rationales | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment — Questions 1-25]
Q1: The charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which client should be assigned to the
LPN/LVN?
A. A client who was just admitted with a suspected MI and is reporting chest pain.
B. A client who is 2 hours post-op from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy requiring discharge
teaching.
C. A client who is 3 days post-op with a stable abdominal wound and requires a dressing change.
D. A client who is receiving a blood transfusion and reports itching.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The LPN/LVN scope of practice includes stable clients with predictable outcomes,
such as a client 3 days post-op needing a dressing change. The RN should handle the unstable
client with chest pain (A), the complex teaching required for discharge (B), and the client
receiving a blood transfusion experiencing potential reaction symptoms (D), as these require
higher-level assessment and critical thinking.
Q2: A client has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which action by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. Tie the restraints to the side rail.
B. Apply the restraints tightly to ensure they do not slip.
C. Ensure the client can insert one finger under the restraint.
D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours for range of motion.
Correct Answer: C
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Rationale: Safety guidelines for restraints state that they must be secure but not impede
circulation; the client should be able to slip one to two fingers underneath the restraint. Restraints
should never be tied to side rails (A) due to the risk of injury if the rails are lowered. They should
not be tight (B), and range-of-motion and circulation checks are required at least every 2 hours
(D), not just every 4 hours.
Q3: The nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client with Type 2 diabetes reporting hunger and a glucose of 70 mg/dL.
B. A client with appendicitis reporting pain relief after administration of analgesics.
C. A client with pneumonia who has a productive cough with green sputum.
D. A client with a head injury who has a sudden drop in GCS and projectile vomiting.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using the ABC framework and prioritization of unstable conditions, a client with a
head injury showing signs of increased intracranial pressure (decreased GCS, projectile
vomiting) is the priority. This is a potential neurologic emergency. The client with hypoglycemia
(A) is stable if conscious and eating, but would be seen second. The other clients (B and C) have
expected findings for their conditions.
Q4: A fire is discovered in the trash can of the client’s bathroom. The nurse follows the RACE
protocol. After rescuing the client, what is the next step?
A. Extinguish the fire.
B. Confine the fire.
C. Activate the alarm.
D. Extinguish/Rescue is done, so move to Contain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The RACE acronym stands for Rescue, Activate (alarm), Confine, and Extinguish.
After ensuring the client is safe, the nurse must pull the fire alarm to alert the facility and fire
department. Activating the alarm precedes confining the fire (closing doors/windows) or
attempting to extinguish it (if small and safe to do so).
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Q5: A client is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). Which transmission-based precaution is
required?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Contact precautions
D. Protective environment precautions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air and can
travel long distances. Therefore, Airborne Precautions (negative pressure room, N95 respirator
mask) are required. Droplet precautions (B) are for illnesses like influenza or meningitis; Contact
precautions (C) are for illnesses spread by touch like C. diff.
Q6: The nurse receives report on a client who is suicidal. Which action is the priority?
A. Administer prescribed antidepressants.
B. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
C. Remove hazardous objects from the room.
D. Place the client on a 15-minute observation schedule.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Safety is the immediate priority for a suicidal client. Removing hazardous objects
(razors, belts, glass) ensures the environment is safe. While medication administration (A),
therapeutic communication (B), and observation (D) are important interventions, they follow the
immediate environmental safety check.
Q7: The nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which action maintains sterile technique?
A. Cleaning the meatus with a circular motion from inner to outer.
C. Keeping the dominant hand sterile throughout the procedure.
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D. Testing the balloon by inflating it with sterile water before insertion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During urinary catheterization, the dominant hand (the one touching the catheter)
must remain sterile. The non-dominant hand is considered contaminated after touching the
client's skin. Cleaning is done outer to inner (A). The balloon is tested (D) but does not define
sterile field maintenance as critically as hand sterility. Opening the kit on a waist-high table (B)
is correct but less critical than hand sterility.
Q8: Which client situation presents the greatest risk for a fall?
A. A 65-year-old client with osteoarthritis using a walker.
B. A 40-year-old client post-laparoscopy receiving PCA opioids.
C. An 80-year-old client with dementia who wanders and has had frequent falls.
D. A 50-year-old client with hypertension taking diuretics.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While all clients have risk factors, the 80-year-old with dementia who wanders and
has a history of falls presents the highest immediate risk due to the combination of cognitive
impairment, age, and recurrent falls. This client would score high on the Morse Fall Scale. The
PCA client (B) is also high risk, but the history of wandering and dementia (C) creates a more
immediate, unpredictable environmental hazard.
Q9: The nurse is documenting client care. Which entry is most appropriate?
A. "Client seems anxious."
B. "Client states, 'I feel nervous about the surgery tomorrow.' "
C. "Client slept well."
D. "Incision looks good."
Correct Answer: B
Comprehensive ATI Notes with Complete Solutions
Nursing Study Guide Actual Exam 2026/2027 –
Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed
Rationales | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
[SECTION 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment — Questions 1-25]
Q1: The charge nurse is making assignments for the shift. Which client should be assigned to the
LPN/LVN?
A. A client who was just admitted with a suspected MI and is reporting chest pain.
B. A client who is 2 hours post-op from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy requiring discharge
teaching.
C. A client who is 3 days post-op with a stable abdominal wound and requires a dressing change.
D. A client who is receiving a blood transfusion and reports itching.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The LPN/LVN scope of practice includes stable clients with predictable outcomes,
such as a client 3 days post-op needing a dressing change. The RN should handle the unstable
client with chest pain (A), the complex teaching required for discharge (B), and the client
receiving a blood transfusion experiencing potential reaction symptoms (D), as these require
higher-level assessment and critical thinking.
Q2: A client has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which action by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. Tie the restraints to the side rail.
B. Apply the restraints tightly to ensure they do not slip.
C. Ensure the client can insert one finger under the restraint.
D. Remove the restraints every 4 hours for range of motion.
Correct Answer: C
,2
Rationale: Safety guidelines for restraints state that they must be secure but not impede
circulation; the client should be able to slip one to two fingers underneath the restraint. Restraints
should never be tied to side rails (A) due to the risk of injury if the rails are lowered. They should
not be tight (B), and range-of-motion and circulation checks are required at least every 2 hours
(D), not just every 4 hours.
Q3: The nurse is caring for four clients. Which client should the nurse see first?
A. A client with Type 2 diabetes reporting hunger and a glucose of 70 mg/dL.
B. A client with appendicitis reporting pain relief after administration of analgesics.
C. A client with pneumonia who has a productive cough with green sputum.
D. A client with a head injury who has a sudden drop in GCS and projectile vomiting.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Using the ABC framework and prioritization of unstable conditions, a client with a
head injury showing signs of increased intracranial pressure (decreased GCS, projectile
vomiting) is the priority. This is a potential neurologic emergency. The client with hypoglycemia
(A) is stable if conscious and eating, but would be seen second. The other clients (B and C) have
expected findings for their conditions.
Q4: A fire is discovered in the trash can of the client’s bathroom. The nurse follows the RACE
protocol. After rescuing the client, what is the next step?
A. Extinguish the fire.
B. Confine the fire.
C. Activate the alarm.
D. Extinguish/Rescue is done, so move to Contain.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The RACE acronym stands for Rescue, Activate (alarm), Confine, and Extinguish.
After ensuring the client is safe, the nurse must pull the fire alarm to alert the facility and fire
department. Activating the alarm precedes confining the fire (closing doors/windows) or
attempting to extinguish it (if small and safe to do so).
,3
Q5: A client is diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB). Which transmission-based precaution is
required?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Contact precautions
D. Protective environment precautions
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei that remain suspended in the air and can
travel long distances. Therefore, Airborne Precautions (negative pressure room, N95 respirator
mask) are required. Droplet precautions (B) are for illnesses like influenza or meningitis; Contact
precautions (C) are for illnesses spread by touch like C. diff.
Q6: The nurse receives report on a client who is suicidal. Which action is the priority?
A. Administer prescribed antidepressants.
B. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings.
C. Remove hazardous objects from the room.
D. Place the client on a 15-minute observation schedule.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Safety is the immediate priority for a suicidal client. Removing hazardous objects
(razors, belts, glass) ensures the environment is safe. While medication administration (A),
therapeutic communication (B), and observation (D) are important interventions, they follow the
immediate environmental safety check.
Q7: The nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which action maintains sterile technique?
A. Cleaning the meatus with a circular motion from inner to outer.
C. Keeping the dominant hand sterile throughout the procedure.
, 4
D. Testing the balloon by inflating it with sterile water before insertion.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During urinary catheterization, the dominant hand (the one touching the catheter)
must remain sterile. The non-dominant hand is considered contaminated after touching the
client's skin. Cleaning is done outer to inner (A). The balloon is tested (D) but does not define
sterile field maintenance as critically as hand sterility. Opening the kit on a waist-high table (B)
is correct but less critical than hand sterility.
Q8: Which client situation presents the greatest risk for a fall?
A. A 65-year-old client with osteoarthritis using a walker.
B. A 40-year-old client post-laparoscopy receiving PCA opioids.
C. An 80-year-old client with dementia who wanders and has had frequent falls.
D. A 50-year-old client with hypertension taking diuretics.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: While all clients have risk factors, the 80-year-old with dementia who wanders and
has a history of falls presents the highest immediate risk due to the combination of cognitive
impairment, age, and recurrent falls. This client would score high on the Morse Fall Scale. The
PCA client (B) is also high risk, but the history of wandering and dementia (C) creates a more
immediate, unpredictable environmental hazard.
Q9: The nurse is documenting client care. Which entry is most appropriate?
A. "Client seems anxious."
B. "Client states, 'I feel nervous about the surgery tomorrow.' "
C. "Client slept well."
D. "Incision looks good."
Correct Answer: B
