Mental Health Nursing Comprehensive Exam
2026 COMPLETE 150 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
GRADED A+| RNSG 2539 EXAM PREP
(BRAND NEW!!)
Q1. A nurse tells a patient, "Why did you stop taking your
medication? You know it’s bad for you." This is an example of
what?
A) Clarifying
B) Disapproving
C) Therapeutic confrontation
D) Exploring
Answer: B) Disapproving
Rationale: The word "why" implies fault and judgment. The phrase
"bad for you" is paternalistic. This is a non-therapeutic response
(value judgment).
Q2. Which defense mechanism is a patient using when they
accuse their spouse of being angry when they themselves are
actually angry?
A) Sublimation
B) Rationalization
,C) Projection
D) Denial
Answer: C) Projection
Rationale: Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable
feelings or thoughts to another person.
Q3. A patient with PTSD reports recurring nightmares. Which
brain structure is primarily responsible for this fear response?
A) Thalamus
B) Amygdala
C) Hippocampus
D) Prefrontal cortex
Answer: B) Amygdala
Rationale: The amygdala is the brain's fear center. It triggers the
"fight or flight" response and is hyperactive in PTSD.
Q4. According to Maslow, which need must be met before a nurse
can successfully teach a patient coping skills for anxiety?
A) Self-esteem
B) Love and belonging
C) Safety and physiology
D) Self-actualization
Answer: C) Safety and physiology
Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy dictates that basic physiological (air,
food, water) and safety needs must be met before higher-level
psychosocial needs can be addressed.
Q5. A nurse maintains a neutral facial expression and allows
silence during a patient's emotional outburst. This technique is
called:
,A) Active ignoring
B) Therapeutic silence
C) Restriction
D) Withdrawal
Answer: B) Therapeutic silence
Rationale: Silence gives the patient control over the conversation
and time to process feelings, provided the nurse remains
attentive.
Q6. The term "anhedonia" refers to:
A) Lack of speech
B) Inability to experience pleasure
C) False fixed beliefs
D) Repetitive movements
Answer: B) Inability to experience pleasure
Rationale: Anhedonia is a core negative symptom of
schizophrenia and major depression (inability to feel joy).
Q7. A nurse says, "Tell me more about what happens right before
you start to feel anxious." This is an example of:
A) Reflecting
B) Exploring
C) Summarizing
D) Accepting
Answer: B) Exploring
Rationale: Exploring helps the patient examine details of a
situation more thoroughly.
Q8. Which medication requires a signed informed consent form
specifically regarding the risk of tardive dyskinesia before
, administration?
A) Fluoxetine
B) Lorazepam
C) Haloperidol
D) Lithium
Answer: C) Haloperidol
Rationale: Haloperidol is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic.
Long-term use carries a high risk of tardive dyskinesia, which
requires specific informed consent in many jurisdictions.
Q9. A patient with Borderline Personality Disorder tells the nurse,
"You are the only one who understands me; the other nurses are
cruel." The nurse should recognize this as:
A) Splitting
B) Dissociation
C) Ideas of reference
D) Transference
Answer: A) Splitting
Rationale: Splitting is the inability to integrate positive and
negative aspects of self or others, viewing them as "all good" or
"all bad."
Q10. The nurse is caring for a patient in seclusion. How often
must a face-to-face evaluation be conducted by a physician (as
per typical CMS guidelines)?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 1 hour
C) Every 4 hours
D) Within 1 hour of initiation
2026 COMPLETE 150 REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
GRADED A+| RNSG 2539 EXAM PREP
(BRAND NEW!!)
Q1. A nurse tells a patient, "Why did you stop taking your
medication? You know it’s bad for you." This is an example of
what?
A) Clarifying
B) Disapproving
C) Therapeutic confrontation
D) Exploring
Answer: B) Disapproving
Rationale: The word "why" implies fault and judgment. The phrase
"bad for you" is paternalistic. This is a non-therapeutic response
(value judgment).
Q2. Which defense mechanism is a patient using when they
accuse their spouse of being angry when they themselves are
actually angry?
A) Sublimation
B) Rationalization
,C) Projection
D) Denial
Answer: C) Projection
Rationale: Projection involves attributing one's own unacceptable
feelings or thoughts to another person.
Q3. A patient with PTSD reports recurring nightmares. Which
brain structure is primarily responsible for this fear response?
A) Thalamus
B) Amygdala
C) Hippocampus
D) Prefrontal cortex
Answer: B) Amygdala
Rationale: The amygdala is the brain's fear center. It triggers the
"fight or flight" response and is hyperactive in PTSD.
Q4. According to Maslow, which need must be met before a nurse
can successfully teach a patient coping skills for anxiety?
A) Self-esteem
B) Love and belonging
C) Safety and physiology
D) Self-actualization
Answer: C) Safety and physiology
Rationale: Maslow's hierarchy dictates that basic physiological (air,
food, water) and safety needs must be met before higher-level
psychosocial needs can be addressed.
Q5. A nurse maintains a neutral facial expression and allows
silence during a patient's emotional outburst. This technique is
called:
,A) Active ignoring
B) Therapeutic silence
C) Restriction
D) Withdrawal
Answer: B) Therapeutic silence
Rationale: Silence gives the patient control over the conversation
and time to process feelings, provided the nurse remains
attentive.
Q6. The term "anhedonia" refers to:
A) Lack of speech
B) Inability to experience pleasure
C) False fixed beliefs
D) Repetitive movements
Answer: B) Inability to experience pleasure
Rationale: Anhedonia is a core negative symptom of
schizophrenia and major depression (inability to feel joy).
Q7. A nurse says, "Tell me more about what happens right before
you start to feel anxious." This is an example of:
A) Reflecting
B) Exploring
C) Summarizing
D) Accepting
Answer: B) Exploring
Rationale: Exploring helps the patient examine details of a
situation more thoroughly.
Q8. Which medication requires a signed informed consent form
specifically regarding the risk of tardive dyskinesia before
, administration?
A) Fluoxetine
B) Lorazepam
C) Haloperidol
D) Lithium
Answer: C) Haloperidol
Rationale: Haloperidol is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic.
Long-term use carries a high risk of tardive dyskinesia, which
requires specific informed consent in many jurisdictions.
Q9. A patient with Borderline Personality Disorder tells the nurse,
"You are the only one who understands me; the other nurses are
cruel." The nurse should recognize this as:
A) Splitting
B) Dissociation
C) Ideas of reference
D) Transference
Answer: A) Splitting
Rationale: Splitting is the inability to integrate positive and
negative aspects of self or others, viewing them as "all good" or
"all bad."
Q10. The nurse is caring for a patient in seclusion. How often
must a face-to-face evaluation be conducted by a physician (as
per typical CMS guidelines)?
A) Every 15 minutes
B) Every 1 hour
C) Every 4 hours
D) Within 1 hour of initiation
