WGU C954 Information Technology Management
Objective Assessment Actual Exam | Complete
Exam 65 Questions – Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: IT Strategy, Governance & Enterprise Architecture
Q1: A regional hospital chain notices that several new telehealth startups are entering
its market and offering virtual visits at lower prices. Using Porter's Five Forces, which
force is most directly threatening the hospital's competitive position?
A. Threat of substitute products
B. Bargaining power of suppliers
C. Threat of new entrants [CORRECT]
D. Rivalry among existing competitors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. New telehealth startups entering the market represent
new competitors that did not previously exist in that space, which directly maps to the
threat of new entrants in Porter's framework. This choice is correct because barriers to
entry in healthcare have been lowered by technology, making this force particularly
relevant for strategic planning.
Q2: An IT director is mapping how her department supports the organization's primary
activities. She notes that the data center, help desk, and network infrastructure all
enable the sales and operations teams to function. In value chain analysis, these IT
functions are best classified as:
A. Primary activities
B. Support activities [CORRECT]
C. Margin activities
D. Inbound logistics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. In Porter's value chain, infrastructure, technology
development, and human resources are support activities that enable the primary
,activities like operations and sales to create value for customers. That matches how IT
typically functions in most organizations—as an enabler rather than a direct revenue
generator.
Q3: The executive team wants to measure IT's contribution beyond just financial returns.
They decide to track employee skills development, system uptime, and customer
satisfaction alongside budget variance. Which strategic management tool are they
implementing?
A. SWOT analysis
B. Balanced scorecard [CORRECT]
C. Six Sigma DMAIC
D. Total Quality Management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. The balanced scorecard evaluates performance across
four perspectives—financial, customer, internal business processes, and learning and
growth—giving leadership a holistic view rather than just a financial snapshot. This
choice is correct because it forces the organization to consider how IT builds long-term
capability, not just short-term cost savings.
Q4: A financial services firm needs to demonstrate to regulators that its IT controls are
aligned with business goals and managed through a clear governance framework.
Which framework is most appropriate?
A. ITIL 4
B. COBIT [CORRECT]
C. Scrum Guide
D. ISO 27001
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. COBIT is specifically designed as an IT governance
framework that helps organizations ensure IT supports business objectives, manages
risk appropriately, and optimizes resources through its goals cascade and enabler
model. That aligns with what regulators expect to see in heavily regulated industries like
finance.
, Q5: In the COBIT framework, which component describes the resources such as people,
processes, and information that are necessary to achieve governance and management
objectives?
A. Goals cascade
B. Enablers [CORRECT]
C. Maturity models
D. Process reference model
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. COBIT's enablers are the factors that individually and
collectively influence whether governance and management over IT will work, including
people, processes, technology, and culture. What we want to remember is that you
cannot achieve governance goals without the right enablers in place.
Q6: The board of directors wants a high-level framework to guide their oversight of IT
without getting into technical implementation details. Which standard provides
principles for corporate governance of IT?
A. ISO 27001
B. NIST SP 800-53
C. ISO/IEC 38500 [CORRECT]
D. TOGAF
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. ISO/IEC 38500 provides principles and a model for
boards and executive management to govern IT use within their organizations, focusing
on evaluate, direct, and monitor activities at the corporate level. This choice is correct
because it is written for directors, not technicians.
Q7: An enterprise architect is developing a high-level vision for how business processes,
data, applications, and technology will evolve over the next five years. Which TOGAF
phase establishes this future-state vision and obtains stakeholder buy-in?
A. Phase A: Architecture Vision [CORRECT]
B. Phase B: Business Architecture
C. Phase E: Opportunities and Solutions
D. Phase H: Architecture Change Management
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is A. Phase A of the TOGAF Architecture Development
Method creates the architecture vision document that outlines the business outcomes,
Objective Assessment Actual Exam | Complete
Exam 65 Questions – Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: IT Strategy, Governance & Enterprise Architecture
Q1: A regional hospital chain notices that several new telehealth startups are entering
its market and offering virtual visits at lower prices. Using Porter's Five Forces, which
force is most directly threatening the hospital's competitive position?
A. Threat of substitute products
B. Bargaining power of suppliers
C. Threat of new entrants [CORRECT]
D. Rivalry among existing competitors
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. New telehealth startups entering the market represent
new competitors that did not previously exist in that space, which directly maps to the
threat of new entrants in Porter's framework. This choice is correct because barriers to
entry in healthcare have been lowered by technology, making this force particularly
relevant for strategic planning.
Q2: An IT director is mapping how her department supports the organization's primary
activities. She notes that the data center, help desk, and network infrastructure all
enable the sales and operations teams to function. In value chain analysis, these IT
functions are best classified as:
A. Primary activities
B. Support activities [CORRECT]
C. Margin activities
D. Inbound logistics
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. In Porter's value chain, infrastructure, technology
development, and human resources are support activities that enable the primary
,activities like operations and sales to create value for customers. That matches how IT
typically functions in most organizations—as an enabler rather than a direct revenue
generator.
Q3: The executive team wants to measure IT's contribution beyond just financial returns.
They decide to track employee skills development, system uptime, and customer
satisfaction alongside budget variance. Which strategic management tool are they
implementing?
A. SWOT analysis
B. Balanced scorecard [CORRECT]
C. Six Sigma DMAIC
D. Total Quality Management
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. The balanced scorecard evaluates performance across
four perspectives—financial, customer, internal business processes, and learning and
growth—giving leadership a holistic view rather than just a financial snapshot. This
choice is correct because it forces the organization to consider how IT builds long-term
capability, not just short-term cost savings.
Q4: A financial services firm needs to demonstrate to regulators that its IT controls are
aligned with business goals and managed through a clear governance framework.
Which framework is most appropriate?
A. ITIL 4
B. COBIT [CORRECT]
C. Scrum Guide
D. ISO 27001
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. COBIT is specifically designed as an IT governance
framework that helps organizations ensure IT supports business objectives, manages
risk appropriately, and optimizes resources through its goals cascade and enabler
model. That aligns with what regulators expect to see in heavily regulated industries like
finance.
, Q5: In the COBIT framework, which component describes the resources such as people,
processes, and information that are necessary to achieve governance and management
objectives?
A. Goals cascade
B. Enablers [CORRECT]
C. Maturity models
D. Process reference model
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best answer is B. COBIT's enablers are the factors that individually and
collectively influence whether governance and management over IT will work, including
people, processes, technology, and culture. What we want to remember is that you
cannot achieve governance goals without the right enablers in place.
Q6: The board of directors wants a high-level framework to guide their oversight of IT
without getting into technical implementation details. Which standard provides
principles for corporate governance of IT?
A. ISO 27001
B. NIST SP 800-53
C. ISO/IEC 38500 [CORRECT]
D. TOGAF
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The best answer is C. ISO/IEC 38500 provides principles and a model for
boards and executive management to govern IT use within their organizations, focusing
on evaluate, direct, and monitor activities at the corporate level. This choice is correct
because it is written for directors, not technicians.
Q7: An enterprise architect is developing a high-level vision for how business processes,
data, applications, and technology will evolve over the next five years. Which TOGAF
phase establishes this future-state vision and obtains stakeholder buy-in?
A. Phase A: Architecture Vision [CORRECT]
B. Phase B: Business Architecture
C. Phase E: Opportunities and Solutions
D. Phase H: Architecture Change Management
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best answer is A. Phase A of the TOGAF Architecture Development
Method creates the architecture vision document that outlines the business outcomes,
