ATLS 10th Edition Post Test Actual
Questions & Answers (Verified Answers)
Update, 100% Guaranteed Score Pass
||Complete A+ Guide
Q1. During the primary survey of a multi-trauma patient, you
note absent breath sounds on the left and tracheal deviation
to the right. What is the next step?
• A) Needle decompression of the left chest
• B) Immediate chest tube insertion
• C) Endotracheal intubation
• D) Chest x-ray
,Page 2 of 195
Rationale: Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis.
Needle decompression (A) is temporizing; chest tube is
definitive. Intubation without decompression worsens
hypotension.
Q2. A 28-year-old male arrives after a motorcycle crash. He
is unconscious, GCS 6, large scalp laceration. BP 70/40, pulse
130. After securing the airway, your next priority is:
• A) CT head
• B) Identify and control source of bleeding
• C) IV fluids
• D) Apply cervical collar
Rationale: Hypotension + altered mental status =
hemorrhagic shock until proven otherwise. Bleeding
control precedes imaging.
,Page 3 of 195
•
•
Q3. Which is the earliest sign of adequate resuscitation in
hemorrhagic shock?
• A) Normal blood pressure
• B) Improved mental status
C) Urine output >0.5 mL/kg/hr
D) Warm, dry skin
Rationale: Cerebral perfusion improves before BP
normalizes.
Q4. A 40-year-old with gunshot wound to the right thigh has
an actively bleeding wound. BP 90/60, pulse 120. Next step:
• A) Apply tourniquet
• B) Direct pressure and wound packing
• C) Start 2 large-bore IVs
•
, Page 4 of 195
• D) Ultrasound for FAST exam
Rationale: Direct pressure is first-line for extremity
hemorrhage. Tourniquet if direct pressure fails.
Q5. Which of the following is an indication for pelvic binder
placement?
• A) Pelvic pain with normal x-ray
B) Unstable pelvic fracture with hypotension