RN Fundamentals Exam 3 Versions
NGN-Style ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | RN Fundamentals NGN
Versions | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
VERSION A (Form 1)
Stand-Alone Items
Q1: A nurse is assessing a postoperative patient who is reporting severe chest pain and suddenly
becomes unresponsive. The patient is not breathing and has no pulse. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the prescribed analgesic to manage the reported pain.
B. Perform abdominal thrusts to clear a potential airway obstruction.
C. Initiate high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). [CORRECT]
D. Document the patient's vital signs and lack of pulse.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because initiating CPR immediately addresses the ABCs (airway, breathing,
circulation) and prevents brain death in a pulseless patient. A is wrong because it is a delayed/non-
priority action that wastes critical time in a cardiac arrest situation. B is wrong because it is a clinically
incorrect/unsafe action for a patient without a pulse, as chest compressions are required. D is wrong
because it represents a correct action (documentation) but is the wrong timing/order, as life-saving
interventions precede documentation.
,Q2: A nurse is reviewing the vital signs of four clients. Which of the following findings should the nurse
recognize as a cue requiring immediate intervention?
A. A 45-year-old with a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min.
B. A 60-year-old with a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) and a heart rate of 92 bpm.
C. A 30-year-old with a pulse oximetry reading of 85% on room air. [CORRECT]
D. An 80-year-old with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a heart rate of 58 bpm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because an SpO2 of 85% indicates severe hypoxemia, an immediate threat to
airway/breathing requiring urgent oxygenation intervention. A is wrong because these are normal vital
signs requiring no intervention. B is wrong because a low-grade fever and slightly elevated heart rate are
not immediate life-threatening cues. D is wrong because mild bradycardia in an older adult without
symptoms is a lower priority than severe hypoxia.
Q3: A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take regarding infection control?
A. Place the client in a negative pressure airborne isolation room.
B. Don a fitted N95 respirator mask before entering the room.
C. Wear a gown and gloves for all contact with the client or the client's environment. [CORRECT]
D. Delay donning PPE until after gathering supplies outside the room to save time.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because C. diff requires contact precautions, meaning a gown and gloves must be
worn to prevent spore transmission. A is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect action (airborne
isolation is for pathogens like tuberculosis, not C. diff). B is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect
action (N95 masks are for airborne, not contact, precautions). D is wrong because it is a delayed/non-
priority action that risks contamination before entering the room.
Q4: A nurse is preparing to administer oral medications to a client who has difficulty swallowing pills.
The provider prescribes a crushed medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Crush all the client's pills together to save time and mix them in applesauce.
,B. Administer the pills whole with a large sip of water to force them down.
C. Verify with the pharmacist that the specific medication is safe to crush before altering it. [CORRECT]
D. Crush the medication after administering it to the client to ensure immediate intake.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because verifying with the pharmacist ensures patient safety, as some medications
(e.g., extended-release) are unsafe to crush. A is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect/unsafe action
that could cause adverse drug interactions if mixed together. B is wrong because it is an unsafe action
that poses a high aspiration risk for a client with dysphagia. D is wrong because it is the wrong
timing/order; medications must be crushed prior to administration.
Q5: A nurse is delegating hygiene tasks to an assistive personnel (AP) for a group of clients. Which of the
following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Performing a complete skin assessment on a newly admitted patient with diabetes.
B. Providing a bed bath to a stable client who is on contact precautions. [CORRECT]
C. Evaluating the effectiveness of a new specialty mattress for a client with a pressure injury.
D. Delaying the bed bath until the next shift to allow the AP to rest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because providing a bed bath to a stable client falls within the AP's scope of practice
and delegation guidelines for routine hygiene. A is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect action;
assessment requires RN-level education and critical thinking. C is wrong because it is a clinically
incorrect action; evaluation is an RN responsibility. D is wrong because it is a delayed/non-priority action
that compromises patient hygiene and skin integrity.
Q6: A nurse is responding to a fall alarm in a patient's room. The patient is found on the floor, conscious
and complaining of left hip pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a comprehensive head-to-toe assessment to check for other injuries.
B. Assist the patient back into bed to prevent further embarrassment.
C. Leave the patient on the floor and immediately call the physical therapy department.
D. Do not move the patient and assess for signs of a fractured hip. [CORRECT]
, Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because not moving the patient prevents further neurovascular or structural damage
if a fracture is present, addressing safety first. A is wrong because it is the wrong timing/order; the nurse
must first ensure no spinal or lower extremity fractures before moving the patient to do a full
assessment. B is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect/unsafe action that could cause catastrophic
injury if a hip fracture exists. C is wrong because it is a delayed/non-priority action that leaves an injured
patient unattended.
Q7: A nurse is reviewing a client's intake and output record. The client's total intake is 1,500 mL, and the
output is 2,000 mL for the 12-hour shift. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Document the findings in the chart as a normal fluid balance.
B. Restrict the client's fluid intake for the next 12 hours without notifying the provider.
C. Recognize the negative fluid balance and notify the healthcare provider. [CORRECT]
D. Wait until the end of the 24-hour period to recalculate the intake and output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a 500 mL negative fluid balance over 12 hours is a significant cue requiring
provider notification to prevent dehydration and hypovolemia. A is wrong because it is a clinically
incorrect action; a negative balance is not normal and requires intervention. B is wrong because it is an
unsafe action; fluid restriction is a medical order, not an independent nursing action. D is wrong because
it is a delayed/non-priority action that allows the fluid deficit to worsen.
Q8: A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items
should the nurse remove from the client's meal tray?
A. Apple juice
B. Chicken broth
C. Gelatin dessert
D. Orange juice with pulp [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because orange juice with pulp is not a clear liquid; pulp leaves residue in the GI tract
and violates the clear liquid diet requirement. A, B, and C are wrong because they are clinically incorrect
actions; apple juice (without pulp), broth, and gelatin are all approved clear liquids. (Note: Standard
NGN-Style ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | RN Fundamentals NGN
Versions | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
VERSION A (Form 1)
Stand-Alone Items
Q1: A nurse is assessing a postoperative patient who is reporting severe chest pain and suddenly
becomes unresponsive. The patient is not breathing and has no pulse. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take first?
A. Administer the prescribed analgesic to manage the reported pain.
B. Perform abdominal thrusts to clear a potential airway obstruction.
C. Initiate high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). [CORRECT]
D. Document the patient's vital signs and lack of pulse.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because initiating CPR immediately addresses the ABCs (airway, breathing,
circulation) and prevents brain death in a pulseless patient. A is wrong because it is a delayed/non-
priority action that wastes critical time in a cardiac arrest situation. B is wrong because it is a clinically
incorrect/unsafe action for a patient without a pulse, as chest compressions are required. D is wrong
because it represents a correct action (documentation) but is the wrong timing/order, as life-saving
interventions precede documentation.
,Q2: A nurse is reviewing the vital signs of four clients. Which of the following findings should the nurse
recognize as a cue requiring immediate intervention?
A. A 45-year-old with a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min.
B. A 60-year-old with a temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) and a heart rate of 92 bpm.
C. A 30-year-old with a pulse oximetry reading of 85% on room air. [CORRECT]
D. An 80-year-old with a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a heart rate of 58 bpm.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because an SpO2 of 85% indicates severe hypoxemia, an immediate threat to
airway/breathing requiring urgent oxygenation intervention. A is wrong because these are normal vital
signs requiring no intervention. B is wrong because a low-grade fever and slightly elevated heart rate are
not immediate life-threatening cues. D is wrong because mild bradycardia in an older adult without
symptoms is a lower priority than severe hypoxia.
Q3: A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take regarding infection control?
A. Place the client in a negative pressure airborne isolation room.
B. Don a fitted N95 respirator mask before entering the room.
C. Wear a gown and gloves for all contact with the client or the client's environment. [CORRECT]
D. Delay donning PPE until after gathering supplies outside the room to save time.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because C. diff requires contact precautions, meaning a gown and gloves must be
worn to prevent spore transmission. A is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect action (airborne
isolation is for pathogens like tuberculosis, not C. diff). B is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect
action (N95 masks are for airborne, not contact, precautions). D is wrong because it is a delayed/non-
priority action that risks contamination before entering the room.
Q4: A nurse is preparing to administer oral medications to a client who has difficulty swallowing pills.
The provider prescribes a crushed medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Crush all the client's pills together to save time and mix them in applesauce.
,B. Administer the pills whole with a large sip of water to force them down.
C. Verify with the pharmacist that the specific medication is safe to crush before altering it. [CORRECT]
D. Crush the medication after administering it to the client to ensure immediate intake.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because verifying with the pharmacist ensures patient safety, as some medications
(e.g., extended-release) are unsafe to crush. A is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect/unsafe action
that could cause adverse drug interactions if mixed together. B is wrong because it is an unsafe action
that poses a high aspiration risk for a client with dysphagia. D is wrong because it is the wrong
timing/order; medications must be crushed prior to administration.
Q5: A nurse is delegating hygiene tasks to an assistive personnel (AP) for a group of clients. Which of the
following tasks is appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A. Performing a complete skin assessment on a newly admitted patient with diabetes.
B. Providing a bed bath to a stable client who is on contact precautions. [CORRECT]
C. Evaluating the effectiveness of a new specialty mattress for a client with a pressure injury.
D. Delaying the bed bath until the next shift to allow the AP to rest.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct because providing a bed bath to a stable client falls within the AP's scope of practice
and delegation guidelines for routine hygiene. A is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect action;
assessment requires RN-level education and critical thinking. C is wrong because it is a clinically
incorrect action; evaluation is an RN responsibility. D is wrong because it is a delayed/non-priority action
that compromises patient hygiene and skin integrity.
Q6: A nurse is responding to a fall alarm in a patient's room. The patient is found on the floor, conscious
and complaining of left hip pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Perform a comprehensive head-to-toe assessment to check for other injuries.
B. Assist the patient back into bed to prevent further embarrassment.
C. Leave the patient on the floor and immediately call the physical therapy department.
D. Do not move the patient and assess for signs of a fractured hip. [CORRECT]
, Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because not moving the patient prevents further neurovascular or structural damage
if a fracture is present, addressing safety first. A is wrong because it is the wrong timing/order; the nurse
must first ensure no spinal or lower extremity fractures before moving the patient to do a full
assessment. B is wrong because it is a clinically incorrect/unsafe action that could cause catastrophic
injury if a hip fracture exists. C is wrong because it is a delayed/non-priority action that leaves an injured
patient unattended.
Q7: A nurse is reviewing a client's intake and output record. The client's total intake is 1,500 mL, and the
output is 2,000 mL for the 12-hour shift. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Document the findings in the chart as a normal fluid balance.
B. Restrict the client's fluid intake for the next 12 hours without notifying the provider.
C. Recognize the negative fluid balance and notify the healthcare provider. [CORRECT]
D. Wait until the end of the 24-hour period to recalculate the intake and output.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct because a 500 mL negative fluid balance over 12 hours is a significant cue requiring
provider notification to prevent dehydration and hypovolemia. A is wrong because it is a clinically
incorrect action; a negative balance is not normal and requires intervention. B is wrong because it is an
unsafe action; fluid restriction is a medical order, not an independent nursing action. D is wrong because
it is a delayed/non-priority action that allows the fluid deficit to worsen.
Q8: A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed a clear liquid diet. Which of the following items
should the nurse remove from the client's meal tray?
A. Apple juice
B. Chicken broth
C. Gelatin dessert
D. Orange juice with pulp [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct because orange juice with pulp is not a clear liquid; pulp leaves residue in the GI tract
and violates the clear liquid diet requirement. A, B, and C are wrong because they are clinically incorrect
actions; apple juice (without pulp), broth, and gelatin are all approved clear liquids. (Note: Standard
