NR511 CEA EXAM (2026 UPDATE) WITH QUESTIONS
AND VERIFIED RATIONALIZED ANSWERS, EXAMS
OF NURSING
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of
consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Precise Answer ✔✔Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question
precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is
a trademark of which of the following diagnoses? - Precise
Answer ✔✔Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of
the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
,Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure
is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe
him? - Precise Answer ✔✔Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of
care for serial surveillance? - Precise Answer ✔✔CT
angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - Precise Answer ✔✔phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents
with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she
,has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung
auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? - Precise
Answer ✔✔Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response
is congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right
ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles
on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up.
it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction
that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that,
rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea,
which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also
not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a
myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent
placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending
artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to be a
priority in the patient's care? - Precise Answer ✔✔Ordering a
transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less
than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such
as an implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or
a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of
sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are
not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to
, re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most
insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to
provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum
post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for
this patient as presented.
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of
cardiac disease? - Precise Answer ✔✔Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians,
and American Indians are at at increased risk of cardiac disease
due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She
is a smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately controlled
with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack.
The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL =
30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle
changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on: -
Precise Answer ✔✔a statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption
inhibitors may be useful in reducing ASVD risk, but for a
patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary disease
history (less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far
from an LDL goal, this patient is most certainly a candidate for
statin therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy
option of these four listed.
AND VERIFIED RATIONALIZED ANSWERS, EXAMS
OF NURSING
The patient is exhibiting a productive cough and a low-grade
fever. Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of
consolidation adjacent to the left border of the heart
approximately 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows this lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the most likely
location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe - Precise Answer ✔✔Left upper lobe lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described in this question
precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is obliterated by the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper lobe
lingula.
The inability to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is
a trademark of which of the following diagnoses? - Precise
Answer ✔✔Diastolic dysfunction
Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a trademark of
the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has been
diagnosed with hypertension. He has been restricting his salt
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop
,Hypertension) diet, and exercising more, but his blood pressure
is still elevated. Which is the BEST medication to prescribe
him? - Precise Answer ✔✔Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should be managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel blocker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has been diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of
care for serial surveillance? - Precise Answer ✔✔CT
angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care for
measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is able to catch large
aneurysms at times, they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause beta 1
stimulation? - Precise Answer ✔✔phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have beta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents
with dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she
,has jugular venous distention and bilateral crackles on lung
auscultation. What is the most likely diagnosis? - Precise
Answer ✔✔Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the available options, the most accurate response
is congestive heart failure as it is signifying both a right
ventricular back up with jugular venous extension and crackles
on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular back up.
it is possible the patient may have an acute myocardial infarction
that precipitated this, however, a patient has not described that,
rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea,
which both speak to a state of fluid overload. The only
appropriate response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also
not on optimal medical therapy has been diagnosed with a
myocardial infarction this admission and received emergent
placement of a drug-eluting stent to the left anterior descending
artery. As the medical home who will manage this patient after
discharge, which medication strategy would you expect to be a
priority in the patient's care? - Precise Answer ✔✔Ordering a
transthoracic echocardiogram and order a Lifevest if EF is less
than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism such
as an implantable automated cardioverter defibrillator (AICD) or
a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the increased risk of
sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since most patients are
not eligible for 90 days for an AICD in this state, optimizing
their medication regimen and repeating an echo in 2-3 months to
, re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is required by most
insurance companies. A baseline echo is needed at discharge to
provide a baseline for improvement vs their repeat echo in 2-3
months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum
post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceivable benefit for
this patient as presented.
Which of the following people groups represent the least risk of
cardiac disease? - Precise Answer ✔✔Caucasians
Rationale: Statistically African Americans, Native Hawaiians,
and American Indians are at at increased risk of cardiac disease
due to higher rates of hypertension, diabetes, and obesity than
Caucasians.
A 65-year-old woman presents for a follow-up examination. She
is a smoker, and her hypertension is now adequately controlled
with medication. Her mother died at age 40 from a heart attack.
The fasting lipid profile shows cholesterol = 240 mg/dL, HDL =
30, and LDL = 200. In addition to starting therapeutic lifestyle
changes, the nurse practitioner should start the patient on: -
Precise Answer ✔✔a statin drug.
Rationale: Bile acid sequestrants and cholesterol absorption
inhibitors may be useful in reducing ASVD risk, but for a
patient who is an active smoker with premature coronary disease
history (less than age 65 for women), has hypertension and is far
from an LDL goal, this patient is most certainly a candidate for
statin therapy, which represents the most aggressive therapy
option of these four listed.
