Page 1 of 133
ABPS Plastic Surgery Certifying Exam COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST
UPDATE THIS YEAR-JUST RELEASED
ABPS Plastic Surgery Certifying Exam,
Summarized Exam Topic Coverage
• Certification Pathway – ABPS certification is voluntary and requires: medical school graduation,
at least 6 years of surgical training (minimum 3 years plastic surgery residency), completion of
supervised surgical cases (operative log), and passing a written and oral/certifying examination
• Written Examination – Approximately 7 hours; 300 multiple-choice questions; covers Core of
Knowledge/General Plastic Surgical Principles (13%), Head & Neck (32%), Upper Extremity
(12%), Trunk (8%), Integument (10%), Specific Related Disciplines (5%), plus other core surgery
topics
• Oral (Certifying) Examination – Case-based format assessing clinical judgment, surgical
planning, complication management, and communication; requires submission of a case
portfolio (log of representative surgeries)
• Maintenance of Certification (MOC) – Certification is not a one-time event; requires ongoing
CME, patient safety education, and recertification to maintain standards
• Core Surgery Topics (ACAPS Content Outline) – Anesthesia, Biostatistics, Fluids/Electrolytes,
Geriatric Surgery, Infection/Antimicrobial Therapy, Minimally Invasive Surgery, Nutrition,
Oncology, Patient Safety, Pharmacology, Preoperative Evaluation, Transfusion
Medicine/Coagulation, Abdominal Surgery, Breast Surgery, Burn Surgery, Dermatology, Head &
Neck Surgery, Neurosurgery, Oculoplastic Surgery, Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery, Orthopedic
Surgery, Pediatric Surgery, Surgical Critical Care, Thoracic Surgery, Transplantation, Trauma,
Vascular Surgery
250 Random Exam-Relevant Scenario Questions
1. Which nerve supplies sensation to the mental region (chin and lower lip)?
A) Inferior alveolar nerve
B) Lingual nerve
C) Buccal nerve
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D) Facial nerve
Answer: A
Rationale: The mental nerve is a terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve, itself a branch of the
mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) .
2. What is the primary determinant of free-flap viability?
A) Suture material selection
B) Pedicle length
C) Anastomotic flow (adequate arterial inflow and venous outflow)
D) Flap thickness
Answer: C
Rationale: Adequate arterial inflow and venous outflow are essential for flap survival. Venous
congestion or arterial insufficiency threatens flap viability regardless of other factors .
3. Which antibiotic regimen is recommended for prophylaxis in clean-contaminated head-and-neck
cancer surgery?
A) Cefazolin monotherapy
B) Cefazolin + metronidazole
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C) Vancomycin monotherapy
D) Ciprofloxacin monotherapy
Answer: B
Rationale: In clean-contaminated head and neck procedures, cefazolin covers skin flora while
metronidazole provides anaerobic coverage, reducing surgical site infection risk .
4. In the Parkland formula for burn resuscitation, initial fluid volume calculation is:
A) 2 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
B) 4 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
C) 6 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
D) 8 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
Answer: B
Rationale: The Parkland formula prescribes 4 mL/kg × %TBSA burn for the first 24 hours. Half of this
volume is given in the first 8 hours .
5. What is the most common malignant skin tumor?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
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C) Melanoma
D) Merkel cell carcinoma
Answer: A
Rationale: Basal cell carcinoma accounts for approximately 80% of all skin cancers .
6. What is the gold standard for diagnosing melanoma thickness (Breslow depth)?
A) Clinical examination
B) Dermoscopy
C) Excisional biopsy
D) Fine-needle aspiration
Answer: C
Rationale: An excisional biopsy with narrow margins provides the complete Breslow depth, which is the
most important prognostic factor for melanoma .
7. Which pedicled flap is most commonly used for total breast reconstruction following mastectomy
when autologous tissue is desired?
A) Latissimus dorsi flap (with or without implant)
B) TRAM flap (pedicled)
ABPS Plastic Surgery Certifying Exam COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND DETAILED SOLUTIONS LATEST
UPDATE THIS YEAR-JUST RELEASED
ABPS Plastic Surgery Certifying Exam,
Summarized Exam Topic Coverage
• Certification Pathway – ABPS certification is voluntary and requires: medical school graduation,
at least 6 years of surgical training (minimum 3 years plastic surgery residency), completion of
supervised surgical cases (operative log), and passing a written and oral/certifying examination
• Written Examination – Approximately 7 hours; 300 multiple-choice questions; covers Core of
Knowledge/General Plastic Surgical Principles (13%), Head & Neck (32%), Upper Extremity
(12%), Trunk (8%), Integument (10%), Specific Related Disciplines (5%), plus other core surgery
topics
• Oral (Certifying) Examination – Case-based format assessing clinical judgment, surgical
planning, complication management, and communication; requires submission of a case
portfolio (log of representative surgeries)
• Maintenance of Certification (MOC) – Certification is not a one-time event; requires ongoing
CME, patient safety education, and recertification to maintain standards
• Core Surgery Topics (ACAPS Content Outline) – Anesthesia, Biostatistics, Fluids/Electrolytes,
Geriatric Surgery, Infection/Antimicrobial Therapy, Minimally Invasive Surgery, Nutrition,
Oncology, Patient Safety, Pharmacology, Preoperative Evaluation, Transfusion
Medicine/Coagulation, Abdominal Surgery, Breast Surgery, Burn Surgery, Dermatology, Head &
Neck Surgery, Neurosurgery, Oculoplastic Surgery, Oral & Maxillofacial Surgery, Orthopedic
Surgery, Pediatric Surgery, Surgical Critical Care, Thoracic Surgery, Transplantation, Trauma,
Vascular Surgery
250 Random Exam-Relevant Scenario Questions
1. Which nerve supplies sensation to the mental region (chin and lower lip)?
A) Inferior alveolar nerve
B) Lingual nerve
C) Buccal nerve
, Page 2 of 133
D) Facial nerve
Answer: A
Rationale: The mental nerve is a terminal branch of the inferior alveolar nerve, itself a branch of the
mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve (CN V3) .
2. What is the primary determinant of free-flap viability?
A) Suture material selection
B) Pedicle length
C) Anastomotic flow (adequate arterial inflow and venous outflow)
D) Flap thickness
Answer: C
Rationale: Adequate arterial inflow and venous outflow are essential for flap survival. Venous
congestion or arterial insufficiency threatens flap viability regardless of other factors .
3. Which antibiotic regimen is recommended for prophylaxis in clean-contaminated head-and-neck
cancer surgery?
A) Cefazolin monotherapy
B) Cefazolin + metronidazole
, Page 3 of 133
C) Vancomycin monotherapy
D) Ciprofloxacin monotherapy
Answer: B
Rationale: In clean-contaminated head and neck procedures, cefazolin covers skin flora while
metronidazole provides anaerobic coverage, reducing surgical site infection risk .
4. In the Parkland formula for burn resuscitation, initial fluid volume calculation is:
A) 2 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
B) 4 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
C) 6 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
D) 8 mL/kg × %TBSA burn
Answer: B
Rationale: The Parkland formula prescribes 4 mL/kg × %TBSA burn for the first 24 hours. Half of this
volume is given in the first 8 hours .
5. What is the most common malignant skin tumor?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Squamous cell carcinoma
, Page 4 of 133
C) Melanoma
D) Merkel cell carcinoma
Answer: A
Rationale: Basal cell carcinoma accounts for approximately 80% of all skin cancers .
6. What is the gold standard for diagnosing melanoma thickness (Breslow depth)?
A) Clinical examination
B) Dermoscopy
C) Excisional biopsy
D) Fine-needle aspiration
Answer: C
Rationale: An excisional biopsy with narrow margins provides the complete Breslow depth, which is the
most important prognostic factor for melanoma .
7. Which pedicled flap is most commonly used for total breast reconstruction following mastectomy
when autologous tissue is desired?
A) Latissimus dorsi flap (with or without implant)
B) TRAM flap (pedicled)
