CHEMOTHERAPY AND IMMUNOTHERAPY EXAM QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS - 100% VERIFIED - LATEST 2026/2027
GUARANTEED PASS
1. Q: What are the three major phases of cell division? ANSWER
Interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis.
2. Q: What are the three steps of interphase? ANSWER G1 (gap 1), S
(synthesis), and G2 (gap 2).
3. Q: What are the four phases of mitosis? ANSWER Prophase,
metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
4. Q: During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
ANSWER S phase (synthesis phase).
5. Q: What is the function of the G1 checkpoint? ANSWER It assesses cell
size, nutrient availability, and DNA integrity before allowing the cell to
enter S phase.
6. Q: What is apoptosis? ANSWER Programmed cell death, a normal
physiological process to eliminate damaged or unnecessary cells.
7. Q: What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors?
ANSWER Benign tumors are localized, slow-growing, and non-invasive;
malignant tumors are invasive, can metastasize, and are cancerous.
8. Q: Define metastasis. ANSWER The spread of cancer cells from the
primary site to distant organs via blood, lymph, or body cavities.
9. Q: What is angiogenesis? ANSWER The formation of new blood vessels
that tumors require for growth and metastasis.
10. Q: What is the role of tumor suppressor genes? ANSWER They
regulate cell division and promote apoptosis; mutations can lead to
uncontrolled cell growth (e.g., p53, BRCA1/2).
,11. Q: What are oncogenes? ANSWER Mutated proto-oncogenes that
promote continuous cell division and cancer development.
12. Q: What is the significance of the HER2/neu receptor in breast
cancer? ANSWER Overexpression promotes aggressive tumor growth;
targeted by trastuzumab (Herceptin).
13. Q: What is the Philadelphia chromosome? ANSWER A translocation
between chromosomes 9 and 22 (t(9;22)) creating the BCR-ABL fusion
gene, found in CML.
14. Q: What does "differentiation" mean in cancer pathology? ANSWER
How much cancer cells resemble normal tissue; well-differentiated tumors
look more like normal cells.
15. Q: What is a carcinogen? ANSWER Any substance or agent that
promotes carcinogenesis (e.g., tobacco, asbestos, UV radiation).
16. Q: Which chemotherapy drug is known to be carcinogenic to humans?
ANSWER Melphalan (an alkylating agent).
17. Q: What is the TNM staging system? ANSWER T = tumor size/extent,
N = lymph node involvement, M = metastasis presence.
18. Q: What does "performance status" assess? ANSWER A patient's
functional capacity and ability to perform daily activities (e.g., ECOG or
Karnofsky scales).
19. Q: What is the purpose of a biopsy in cancer diagnosis? ANSWER To
obtain tissue for histological examination to confirm malignancy and
determine tumor type/grade.
20. Q: What is tumor lysis syndrome? ANSWER A metabolic emergency
caused by rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing potassium,
phosphorus, and uric acid.
21. Q: Which lab values are monitored in tumor lysis syndrome?
ANSWER Potassium, phosphorus, calcium, uric acid, creatinine, and LDH.
22. Q: What is the primary preventive treatment for tumor lysis
syndrome? ANSWER Hydration and allopurinol or rasburicase to reduce
uric acid levels.
23. Q: What is the difference between primary and secondary cancer?
ANSWER Primary is the original tumor site; secondary (metastatic) is
where cancer has spread.
, 24. Q: What is neoadjuvant therapy? ANSWER Treatment given before
the primary treatment (usually surgery) to shrink tumors.
25. Q: What is adjuvant therapy? ANSWER Treatment given after
primary therapy to eliminate micrometastases and reduce recurrence risk.
26. Q: What is palliative chemotherapy? ANSWER Treatment aimed at
symptom relief and quality of life rather than cure.
27. Q: What is the doubling time of a tumor? ANSWER The time required
for a tumor to double in size; varies widely among cancer types.
28. Q: What is the G0 phase of the cell cycle? ANSWER A resting phase
where cells are not actively dividing; some chemotherapies are ineffective
against G0 cells.
29. Q: What is the significance of the log-kill hypothesis? ANSWER It
states that a given dose of chemotherapy kills a constant fraction of tumor
cells, not a constant number.
30. Q: What is clonogenic assay? ANSWER A laboratory test to determine
the sensitivity of a patient's tumor cells to specific chemotherapeutic
agents.
SECTION 2: CHEMOTHERAPY DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS &
MECHANISMS (Questions 31–70)
31. Q: What are alkylating agents and how do they work? ANSWER They
cross-link DNA strands, preventing cell division; cell-cycle nonspecific.
Examples: cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, cisplatin.
32. Q: What is the mechanism of antimetabolites? ANSWER They
interfere with DNA/RNA synthesis by mimicking normal metabolites; S-
phase specific. Examples: methotrexate, 5-FU, gemcitabine.
33. Q: How do plant alkaloids (vinca alkaloids) work? ANSWER They
inhibit microtubule formation during mitosis (M-phase specific).
Examples: vincristine, vinblastine.
34. Q: What is the mechanism of taxanes? ANSWER They stabilize
microtubules, preventing their disassembly during cell division. Examples:
paclitaxel, docetaxel.
VERIFIED ANSWERS - 100% VERIFIED - LATEST 2026/2027
GUARANTEED PASS
1. Q: What are the three major phases of cell division? ANSWER
Interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis.
2. Q: What are the three steps of interphase? ANSWER G1 (gap 1), S
(synthesis), and G2 (gap 2).
3. Q: What are the four phases of mitosis? ANSWER Prophase,
metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.
4. Q: During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
ANSWER S phase (synthesis phase).
5. Q: What is the function of the G1 checkpoint? ANSWER It assesses cell
size, nutrient availability, and DNA integrity before allowing the cell to
enter S phase.
6. Q: What is apoptosis? ANSWER Programmed cell death, a normal
physiological process to eliminate damaged or unnecessary cells.
7. Q: What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors?
ANSWER Benign tumors are localized, slow-growing, and non-invasive;
malignant tumors are invasive, can metastasize, and are cancerous.
8. Q: Define metastasis. ANSWER The spread of cancer cells from the
primary site to distant organs via blood, lymph, or body cavities.
9. Q: What is angiogenesis? ANSWER The formation of new blood vessels
that tumors require for growth and metastasis.
10. Q: What is the role of tumor suppressor genes? ANSWER They
regulate cell division and promote apoptosis; mutations can lead to
uncontrolled cell growth (e.g., p53, BRCA1/2).
,11. Q: What are oncogenes? ANSWER Mutated proto-oncogenes that
promote continuous cell division and cancer development.
12. Q: What is the significance of the HER2/neu receptor in breast
cancer? ANSWER Overexpression promotes aggressive tumor growth;
targeted by trastuzumab (Herceptin).
13. Q: What is the Philadelphia chromosome? ANSWER A translocation
between chromosomes 9 and 22 (t(9;22)) creating the BCR-ABL fusion
gene, found in CML.
14. Q: What does "differentiation" mean in cancer pathology? ANSWER
How much cancer cells resemble normal tissue; well-differentiated tumors
look more like normal cells.
15. Q: What is a carcinogen? ANSWER Any substance or agent that
promotes carcinogenesis (e.g., tobacco, asbestos, UV radiation).
16. Q: Which chemotherapy drug is known to be carcinogenic to humans?
ANSWER Melphalan (an alkylating agent).
17. Q: What is the TNM staging system? ANSWER T = tumor size/extent,
N = lymph node involvement, M = metastasis presence.
18. Q: What does "performance status" assess? ANSWER A patient's
functional capacity and ability to perform daily activities (e.g., ECOG or
Karnofsky scales).
19. Q: What is the purpose of a biopsy in cancer diagnosis? ANSWER To
obtain tissue for histological examination to confirm malignancy and
determine tumor type/grade.
20. Q: What is tumor lysis syndrome? ANSWER A metabolic emergency
caused by rapid destruction of cancer cells, releasing potassium,
phosphorus, and uric acid.
21. Q: Which lab values are monitored in tumor lysis syndrome?
ANSWER Potassium, phosphorus, calcium, uric acid, creatinine, and LDH.
22. Q: What is the primary preventive treatment for tumor lysis
syndrome? ANSWER Hydration and allopurinol or rasburicase to reduce
uric acid levels.
23. Q: What is the difference between primary and secondary cancer?
ANSWER Primary is the original tumor site; secondary (metastatic) is
where cancer has spread.
, 24. Q: What is neoadjuvant therapy? ANSWER Treatment given before
the primary treatment (usually surgery) to shrink tumors.
25. Q: What is adjuvant therapy? ANSWER Treatment given after
primary therapy to eliminate micrometastases and reduce recurrence risk.
26. Q: What is palliative chemotherapy? ANSWER Treatment aimed at
symptom relief and quality of life rather than cure.
27. Q: What is the doubling time of a tumor? ANSWER The time required
for a tumor to double in size; varies widely among cancer types.
28. Q: What is the G0 phase of the cell cycle? ANSWER A resting phase
where cells are not actively dividing; some chemotherapies are ineffective
against G0 cells.
29. Q: What is the significance of the log-kill hypothesis? ANSWER It
states that a given dose of chemotherapy kills a constant fraction of tumor
cells, not a constant number.
30. Q: What is clonogenic assay? ANSWER A laboratory test to determine
the sensitivity of a patient's tumor cells to specific chemotherapeutic
agents.
SECTION 2: CHEMOTHERAPY DRUG CLASSIFICATIONS &
MECHANISMS (Questions 31–70)
31. Q: What are alkylating agents and how do they work? ANSWER They
cross-link DNA strands, preventing cell division; cell-cycle nonspecific.
Examples: cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide, cisplatin.
32. Q: What is the mechanism of antimetabolites? ANSWER They
interfere with DNA/RNA synthesis by mimicking normal metabolites; S-
phase specific. Examples: methotrexate, 5-FU, gemcitabine.
33. Q: How do plant alkaloids (vinca alkaloids) work? ANSWER They
inhibit microtubule formation during mitosis (M-phase specific).
Examples: vincristine, vinblastine.
34. Q: What is the mechanism of taxanes? ANSWER They stabilize
microtubules, preventing their disassembly during cell division. Examples:
paclitaxel, docetaxel.
