ATI MATERNAL NEWBORN PROCTORED EXAM FORM A &
FORM B 2026/2027 | Comprehensive Guide | Graded A+ | ATI
CMS | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
=== FORM A (60 QUESTIONS) ===
[Form A Section 1: Antepartum Health Promotion & Risk Screening (Q1-12)]
FORM A - Q1
A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 12 weeks gestation. The client
reports no fetal movement yet and asks when she should expect to feel quickening.
Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "Most first-time mothers feel quickening between 14 and 16 weeks."
B. "Quickening is typically felt between 18 and 20 weeks in a first pregnancy."
[CORRECT]
C. "You should feel movement by 24 weeks if the pregnancy is progressing normally."
D. "Quickening occurs around 28 weeks when the fetus is large enough to be felt."
Rationale: Form A basic concept: Quickening in nulliparous clients typically occurs
between 18-20 weeks gestation; multiparous clients may perceive it earlier (16-18
weeks). Option A is too early for a first pregnancy. Option C and D are delayed beyond
normal expectations.
Correct Answer: B
FORM A - Q2
,A pregnant client at 8 weeks gestation asks the nurse about recommended weight gain
during pregnancy. The client has a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 (normal weight). Which
response by the nurse is correct?
A. "You should gain 11 to 20 pounds total throughout the pregnancy."
B. "A total weight gain of 15 to 25 pounds is recommended for your BMI category."
C. "For a normal pre-pregnancy BMI, total weight gain should be 25 to 35 pounds."
[CORRECT]
D. "You should plan to gain 28 to 40 pounds to support fetal growth."
Rationale: Form A recall: IOM guidelines recommend 25-35 lb total weight gain for
normal BMI (18.5-24.9). Underweight: 28-40 lb; Overweight: 15-25 lb; Obese: 11-20 lb.
Option A describes obese category. Option B describes overweight category. Option D
describes underweight category.
Correct Answer: C
FORM A - Q3
During a routine prenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation, the nurse assesses the fundal
height. Which finding indicates normal progression?
A. Fundal height at the level of the umbilicus
B. Fundal height approximately 28 cm from the symphysis pubis [CORRECT]
C. Fundal height at the xiphoid process
D. Fundal height 32 cm from the symphysis pubis
Rationale: Form A recall: Fundal height in centimeters approximately equals gestational
age in weeks between 20-36 weeks. At 28 weeks, fundal height should be ~28 cm.
Option A (umbilicus) corresponds to ~20 weeks. Option C (xiphoid) corresponds to ~36
weeks. Option D (32 cm) would indicate 32 weeks.
Correct Answer: B
,FORM A - Q4
A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about foods to avoid during pregnancy. Which food
item should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
A. Pasteurized cheddar cheese
B. Cooked salmon
C. Unpasteurized soft cheeses [CORRECT]
D. Well-done beef
Rationale: Form A application: Unpasteurized soft cheeses carry risk of Listeria
monocytogenes infection, which can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or neonatal infection.
Pasteurized cheeses, cooked fish, and well-done meats are safe during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: C
FORM A - Q5
A client at 16 weeks gestation reports mild constipation. Which nursing intervention
should be recommended first?
A. Start a daily stool softener regimen
B. Increase dietary fiber and fluid intake [CORRECT]
C. Take a daily laxative to prevent complications
D. Decrease prenatal vitamin intake to reduce iron
Rationale: Form A basic intervention: First-line management for pregnancy constipation
is non-pharmacologic—increasing fiber (25-30 g/day) and fluids (8-10 glasses/day).
Stool softeners are second-line. Laxatives are not first-line. Decreasing prenatal
vitamins compromises nutrition.
Correct Answer: B
, FORM A - Q6
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a pregnant client at her first prenatal visit.
Which finding requires follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. Hematocrit 34%
C. Rubella titer: non-immune [CORRECT]
D. Blood type: O positive
Rationale: Form A application: Non-immune rubella status requires postpartum
immunization (MMR is contraindicated during pregnancy). Hemoglobin ≥11 g/dL and
hematocrit ≥33% are acceptable in pregnancy. O positive blood type is common and not
concerning unless Rh negative.
Correct Answer: C
FORM A - Q7
A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports frequent heartburn. Which teaching
should the nurse provide?
A. "Lie flat after meals to allow gravity to help digestion."
B. "Eat three large meals daily to reduce stomach acid production."
C. "Avoid eating within 2-3 hours of bedtime and sleep with head elevated." [CORRECT]
D. "Discontinue your prenatal vitamin as it may worsen heartburn."
Rationale: Form A application: Heartburn in pregnancy is caused by progesterone
relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter and uterine displacement of stomach. Elevation
of head, small frequent meals, and avoiding late eating are appropriate. Lying flat
worsens reflux. Large meals increase acid. Prenatal vitamins should not be
discontinued.
FORM B 2026/2027 | Comprehensive Guide | Graded A+ | ATI
CMS | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
=== FORM A (60 QUESTIONS) ===
[Form A Section 1: Antepartum Health Promotion & Risk Screening (Q1-12)]
FORM A - Q1
A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 12 weeks gestation. The client
reports no fetal movement yet and asks when she should expect to feel quickening.
Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "Most first-time mothers feel quickening between 14 and 16 weeks."
B. "Quickening is typically felt between 18 and 20 weeks in a first pregnancy."
[CORRECT]
C. "You should feel movement by 24 weeks if the pregnancy is progressing normally."
D. "Quickening occurs around 28 weeks when the fetus is large enough to be felt."
Rationale: Form A basic concept: Quickening in nulliparous clients typically occurs
between 18-20 weeks gestation; multiparous clients may perceive it earlier (16-18
weeks). Option A is too early for a first pregnancy. Option C and D are delayed beyond
normal expectations.
Correct Answer: B
FORM A - Q2
,A pregnant client at 8 weeks gestation asks the nurse about recommended weight gain
during pregnancy. The client has a pre-pregnancy BMI of 22 (normal weight). Which
response by the nurse is correct?
A. "You should gain 11 to 20 pounds total throughout the pregnancy."
B. "A total weight gain of 15 to 25 pounds is recommended for your BMI category."
C. "For a normal pre-pregnancy BMI, total weight gain should be 25 to 35 pounds."
[CORRECT]
D. "You should plan to gain 28 to 40 pounds to support fetal growth."
Rationale: Form A recall: IOM guidelines recommend 25-35 lb total weight gain for
normal BMI (18.5-24.9). Underweight: 28-40 lb; Overweight: 15-25 lb; Obese: 11-20 lb.
Option A describes obese category. Option B describes overweight category. Option D
describes underweight category.
Correct Answer: C
FORM A - Q3
During a routine prenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation, the nurse assesses the fundal
height. Which finding indicates normal progression?
A. Fundal height at the level of the umbilicus
B. Fundal height approximately 28 cm from the symphysis pubis [CORRECT]
C. Fundal height at the xiphoid process
D. Fundal height 32 cm from the symphysis pubis
Rationale: Form A recall: Fundal height in centimeters approximately equals gestational
age in weeks between 20-36 weeks. At 28 weeks, fundal height should be ~28 cm.
Option A (umbilicus) corresponds to ~20 weeks. Option C (xiphoid) corresponds to ~36
weeks. Option D (32 cm) would indicate 32 weeks.
Correct Answer: B
,FORM A - Q4
A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about foods to avoid during pregnancy. Which food
item should the nurse instruct the client to eliminate from her diet?
A. Pasteurized cheddar cheese
B. Cooked salmon
C. Unpasteurized soft cheeses [CORRECT]
D. Well-done beef
Rationale: Form A application: Unpasteurized soft cheeses carry risk of Listeria
monocytogenes infection, which can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or neonatal infection.
Pasteurized cheeses, cooked fish, and well-done meats are safe during pregnancy.
Correct Answer: C
FORM A - Q5
A client at 16 weeks gestation reports mild constipation. Which nursing intervention
should be recommended first?
A. Start a daily stool softener regimen
B. Increase dietary fiber and fluid intake [CORRECT]
C. Take a daily laxative to prevent complications
D. Decrease prenatal vitamin intake to reduce iron
Rationale: Form A basic intervention: First-line management for pregnancy constipation
is non-pharmacologic—increasing fiber (25-30 g/day) and fluids (8-10 glasses/day).
Stool softeners are second-line. Laxatives are not first-line. Decreasing prenatal
vitamins compromises nutrition.
Correct Answer: B
, FORM A - Q6
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a pregnant client at her first prenatal visit.
Which finding requires follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin 11.5 g/dL
B. Hematocrit 34%
C. Rubella titer: non-immune [CORRECT]
D. Blood type: O positive
Rationale: Form A application: Non-immune rubella status requires postpartum
immunization (MMR is contraindicated during pregnancy). Hemoglobin ≥11 g/dL and
hematocrit ≥33% are acceptable in pregnancy. O positive blood type is common and not
concerning unless Rh negative.
Correct Answer: C
FORM A - Q7
A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports frequent heartburn. Which teaching
should the nurse provide?
A. "Lie flat after meals to allow gravity to help digestion."
B. "Eat three large meals daily to reduce stomach acid production."
C. "Avoid eating within 2-3 hours of bedtime and sleep with head elevated." [CORRECT]
D. "Discontinue your prenatal vitamin as it may worsen heartburn."
Rationale: Form A application: Heartburn in pregnancy is caused by progesterone
relaxing the lower esophageal sphincter and uterine displacement of stomach. Elevation
of head, small frequent meals, and avoiding late eating are appropriate. Lying flat
worsens reflux. Large meals increase acid. Prenatal vitamins should not be
discontinued.
