Page 1 of 115
LPN NCLEX - WITH EXPLANATIONS QUESTIONS EXAM
MOST COMPREHENSIVE 2026 QUESTIONS EXAM LATEST
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED
100 %
A nurse is caring for a patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) that
has been refractory to management with medicines. The nurse anticipates the
patient will undergo which procedure?
a) Transurethral needle ablation
b) Transurethral microwave thermotherapy
c) Photoselective vaporization of the prostate
d) Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
d) Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
Transurethral resection of the prostate is considered the gold standard for BPH
treatment. Although transurethral needle ablation, transurethral microwave
thermotherapy, and photoselective vaporization of the prostate are all used to treat
BPH, TURP is the preferred method.
When a client is experiencing hypovolemic shock with decreased tissue
perfusion, the nurse expects that the body initially attempts to compensate by:
a) Producing less antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b) Producing more red blood cells
c) Maintaining peripheral vasoconstriction
d) Decreasing mineralocorticoid production
c) Maintaining peripheral vasoconstriction
With shock, arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs, raising the total peripheral vascular
resistance and shifting blood to the major organs. With shock, more ADH is
produced to promote fluid retention, which will elevate the blood pressure. Although
producing more red blood cells is a response to hypoxia, peripheral vasoconstriction
is a more effective compensatory mechanism. With shock the mineralocorticoids
increase to promote fluid retention, which elevates the blood pressure.
Test-Taking Tip: Many times the correct answer is the longest alternative given, but
do not count on it. NCLEX item writers (those who write the questions) are also
aware of this and attempt to avoid offering you such "helpful hints."
A client was diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas two months
ago. The client is admitted to the hospital with weight loss, severe epigastric
, Page 2 of 115
pain, and jaundice. When performing the client's assessment, the nurse
expects the client's stool to be what color?
a) Green
b) Brown
c) Red-tinged
d) Clay-colored
d) Clay-colored
Tumors of the head of the pancreas usually obstruct the common bile duct where it
passes through the head of the pancreas to join the pancreatic duct and empty at the
ampulla of Vater into the duodenum. The feces will be clay-colored when bile is
prevented from entering the duodenum. Green stools may occur with prolonged
diarrhea associated with gastrointestinal inflammation. The feces are brown when
there is unobstructed bile flow into the duodenum. Inflammation or ulceration of the
lower intestinal mucosa results in blood-tinged stools.
Test-Taking Tip: Note the number of questions and the total time allotted for the test
to calculate the times at which you should be halfway and three-quarters finished
with the test. Look at the clock only every 10 minutes or so.
What clinical manifestations does a nurse expect a client with systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE) most likely to exhibit?
a) Joint pain
b) Facial rash
c) Pericarditis
d) Weight gain
e) Hypotension
a) Joint pain
b) Facial rash
c) Pericarditis
SLE is a chronic, autoimmune disease that affects connective tissue; joint pain is
common. A butterfly rash is characteristic of SLE. Pericarditis is the most common
cardiac indicator of SLE. Weight loss, not gain, is a classic sign of SLE because of
gastrointestinal effects. Renal impairment with SLE may cause hypertension, not
hypotension.
What client factor does the nurse consider to have the greatest impact on the
effectiveness of bariatric surgery?
a) Freedom from concurrent high-risk conditions.
b) Motivation to cooperate with required lifestyle changes.
c) Willingness to have a panniculectomy a year after weight is stabilized.
d) Ability to tolerate the large abdominal incision necessary for this surgery.
b) Motivation to cooperate with required lifestyle changes.
Bariatric surgery requires the client to engage in significant postoperative lifestyle
changes (e.g., radically modifying eating habits, taking nutritional supplements,
meeting numerous emotional challenges, engaging in exercise); clients who cannot
cooperate with the postoperative program are not considered candidates for bariatric
, Page 3 of 115
surgery. Clients with concurrent high-risk conditions may be considered candidates
for this surgery because the benefits outweigh the risks. Panniculectomy, surgery
performed to remove excess abdominal skin folds, is elective surgery that not all
clients choose to receive. Many bariatric surgeries can be done laparoscopically and
do not require a large abdominal incision; although bariatric surgery can be done
laparoscopically, it is still major surgery for obese clients.
A sexually active client presents with a sore throat and a generalized rash. The
client states that a chancre that had been present healed approximately three
months ago. The physical assessment and the serologic test findings indicate
a diagnosis of syphilis. The nurse recognizes that the client is experiencing
what stage of syphilis?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Latent
d) Tertiary
b) Secondary
The client has secondary syphilis, which occurs one to three months after healing of
the primary lesion and lasts for several weeks to as long as a year; it is the stage at
which the individual is most infectious. Primary syphilis is the stage of initial infection
and is characterized by the presence of a chancre, a painless lesion at the site of
infection. Latent syphilis occurs after the secondary stage and before the late stage
of syphilis; in latent syphilis the immune system is able to suppress the infection and
there are no clinical signs and symptoms. Tertiary syphilis, also known as late
syphilis, is the final stage of syphilis; 20% to 40% do not demonstrate signs and
symptoms during this stage. At this stage it is a slowly progressive inflammatory
disease that can involve many organs; common complications include paresis, brain
attack, dementia, psychosis, aortitis, and meningitis.
The nurse is assessing a client 12 hours after the client sustained a deep
partial-thickness burn on the forearm. What characteristics should the nurse
expect to identify when assessing the injured tissue?
a) Red and swollen
b) Blistered and wet
c) Charred and white
d) Leathery and black
b) Blistered and wet
Deep partial-thickness burns involve some injury to the epidermis and dermis,
characterized by fluid-filled vesicles that are red, shiny, and wet. Red and swollen
describes a superficial partial-thickness burn. The characteristics charred and white,
and leathery and black describe a full-thickness burn.
A client has a thyroidectomy for cancer of the thyroid. To evaluate for nerve
injury that may be the result of surgery-related trauma, the nurse assesses the
client's ability to:
a) Speak
b) Swallow
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c) Purse the lips
d) Turn the head
a) Speak
The laryngeal nerve is close to the operative site and can be damaged inadvertently.
Loss of the gag reflex occurs with general anesthesia; the ability to swallow signifies
its return. The ability to purse the lips tests the seventh cranial (facial) nerve, which is
not affected in thyroid surgery. The nerves involved in turning the head are not near
the thyroid gland.
A health care provider prescribes an antihypertensive medication. Which over-
the-counter medication should the nurse teach the client to avoid because it
has the potential to counteract the effect of the antihypertensive?
a) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
b) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
c) Docusate sodium (Colace)
d) Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
d) Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
Pseudoephedrine has a pressor effect that may counteract antihypertensive
medications, causing an increase in blood pressure. Omeprazole does not interact
with antihypertensives. However, it can increase the action of phenytoin, digoxin,
clopidrogrel (Plavix), and cyclosporine. Acetaminophen does not have to be avoided
when receiving an antihypertensive. Docusate sodium does not have to be avoided
when receiving an antihypertensive.
What is SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone)
1. Complecation: cerebral edema, pulmonary edema, hyponatremia
2. Fluid restriction
3.Urinary catheter avoided do to risk of UTI
Heart failure (CHF) mnemonic: "F.A.I.L.U.R.E."
F - FAULTY valves - stenosis (too narrow), regurgitated (it leaks), infected.
A - ARRHYTHMIAS - Afib (atrium is queebering, blood pools), tachycardia.
I - INFARCTION (MI or CAD) - muscle is ischemic and dies.
L - LINEAGE (congenital [family Hx]).
U - UNCONTROLLED HTN - causes stiffening of wall ventricles.
R - RECREATIONAL DRUGS USE - cocaine and alcohol.
E - EVADORS - viruses/infections that attack the heart.
What happens when Na+ and Ca+ enter the cardiac cell?
Na+ - enters rapidly to start depolarization (myocardial contraction).
Ca+ - enter later to maintain it.
In an EKG/ECG what does a T wave reflect?
1. Ventricular repolarization
2. Upright in most leads
3. Last longer than ventricular depolarization
After an amputation, a client's residual limb is bandaged snugly throughout
the postoperative period. The nurse teaches the client that the primary
purpose of the rigid bandaging of the residual limb is to:
a) Prevent suture line infection
b) Promote drainage of secretions
LPN NCLEX - WITH EXPLANATIONS QUESTIONS EXAM
MOST COMPREHENSIVE 2026 QUESTIONS EXAM LATEST
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED
100 %
A nurse is caring for a patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) that
has been refractory to management with medicines. The nurse anticipates the
patient will undergo which procedure?
a) Transurethral needle ablation
b) Transurethral microwave thermotherapy
c) Photoselective vaporization of the prostate
d) Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
d) Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)
Transurethral resection of the prostate is considered the gold standard for BPH
treatment. Although transurethral needle ablation, transurethral microwave
thermotherapy, and photoselective vaporization of the prostate are all used to treat
BPH, TURP is the preferred method.
When a client is experiencing hypovolemic shock with decreased tissue
perfusion, the nurse expects that the body initially attempts to compensate by:
a) Producing less antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
b) Producing more red blood cells
c) Maintaining peripheral vasoconstriction
d) Decreasing mineralocorticoid production
c) Maintaining peripheral vasoconstriction
With shock, arteriolar vasoconstriction occurs, raising the total peripheral vascular
resistance and shifting blood to the major organs. With shock, more ADH is
produced to promote fluid retention, which will elevate the blood pressure. Although
producing more red blood cells is a response to hypoxia, peripheral vasoconstriction
is a more effective compensatory mechanism. With shock the mineralocorticoids
increase to promote fluid retention, which elevates the blood pressure.
Test-Taking Tip: Many times the correct answer is the longest alternative given, but
do not count on it. NCLEX item writers (those who write the questions) are also
aware of this and attempt to avoid offering you such "helpful hints."
A client was diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas two months
ago. The client is admitted to the hospital with weight loss, severe epigastric
, Page 2 of 115
pain, and jaundice. When performing the client's assessment, the nurse
expects the client's stool to be what color?
a) Green
b) Brown
c) Red-tinged
d) Clay-colored
d) Clay-colored
Tumors of the head of the pancreas usually obstruct the common bile duct where it
passes through the head of the pancreas to join the pancreatic duct and empty at the
ampulla of Vater into the duodenum. The feces will be clay-colored when bile is
prevented from entering the duodenum. Green stools may occur with prolonged
diarrhea associated with gastrointestinal inflammation. The feces are brown when
there is unobstructed bile flow into the duodenum. Inflammation or ulceration of the
lower intestinal mucosa results in blood-tinged stools.
Test-Taking Tip: Note the number of questions and the total time allotted for the test
to calculate the times at which you should be halfway and three-quarters finished
with the test. Look at the clock only every 10 minutes or so.
What clinical manifestations does a nurse expect a client with systemic lupus
erythematosus (SLE) most likely to exhibit?
a) Joint pain
b) Facial rash
c) Pericarditis
d) Weight gain
e) Hypotension
a) Joint pain
b) Facial rash
c) Pericarditis
SLE is a chronic, autoimmune disease that affects connective tissue; joint pain is
common. A butterfly rash is characteristic of SLE. Pericarditis is the most common
cardiac indicator of SLE. Weight loss, not gain, is a classic sign of SLE because of
gastrointestinal effects. Renal impairment with SLE may cause hypertension, not
hypotension.
What client factor does the nurse consider to have the greatest impact on the
effectiveness of bariatric surgery?
a) Freedom from concurrent high-risk conditions.
b) Motivation to cooperate with required lifestyle changes.
c) Willingness to have a panniculectomy a year after weight is stabilized.
d) Ability to tolerate the large abdominal incision necessary for this surgery.
b) Motivation to cooperate with required lifestyle changes.
Bariatric surgery requires the client to engage in significant postoperative lifestyle
changes (e.g., radically modifying eating habits, taking nutritional supplements,
meeting numerous emotional challenges, engaging in exercise); clients who cannot
cooperate with the postoperative program are not considered candidates for bariatric
, Page 3 of 115
surgery. Clients with concurrent high-risk conditions may be considered candidates
for this surgery because the benefits outweigh the risks. Panniculectomy, surgery
performed to remove excess abdominal skin folds, is elective surgery that not all
clients choose to receive. Many bariatric surgeries can be done laparoscopically and
do not require a large abdominal incision; although bariatric surgery can be done
laparoscopically, it is still major surgery for obese clients.
A sexually active client presents with a sore throat and a generalized rash. The
client states that a chancre that had been present healed approximately three
months ago. The physical assessment and the serologic test findings indicate
a diagnosis of syphilis. The nurse recognizes that the client is experiencing
what stage of syphilis?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Latent
d) Tertiary
b) Secondary
The client has secondary syphilis, which occurs one to three months after healing of
the primary lesion and lasts for several weeks to as long as a year; it is the stage at
which the individual is most infectious. Primary syphilis is the stage of initial infection
and is characterized by the presence of a chancre, a painless lesion at the site of
infection. Latent syphilis occurs after the secondary stage and before the late stage
of syphilis; in latent syphilis the immune system is able to suppress the infection and
there are no clinical signs and symptoms. Tertiary syphilis, also known as late
syphilis, is the final stage of syphilis; 20% to 40% do not demonstrate signs and
symptoms during this stage. At this stage it is a slowly progressive inflammatory
disease that can involve many organs; common complications include paresis, brain
attack, dementia, psychosis, aortitis, and meningitis.
The nurse is assessing a client 12 hours after the client sustained a deep
partial-thickness burn on the forearm. What characteristics should the nurse
expect to identify when assessing the injured tissue?
a) Red and swollen
b) Blistered and wet
c) Charred and white
d) Leathery and black
b) Blistered and wet
Deep partial-thickness burns involve some injury to the epidermis and dermis,
characterized by fluid-filled vesicles that are red, shiny, and wet. Red and swollen
describes a superficial partial-thickness burn. The characteristics charred and white,
and leathery and black describe a full-thickness burn.
A client has a thyroidectomy for cancer of the thyroid. To evaluate for nerve
injury that may be the result of surgery-related trauma, the nurse assesses the
client's ability to:
a) Speak
b) Swallow
, Page 4 of 115
c) Purse the lips
d) Turn the head
a) Speak
The laryngeal nerve is close to the operative site and can be damaged inadvertently.
Loss of the gag reflex occurs with general anesthesia; the ability to swallow signifies
its return. The ability to purse the lips tests the seventh cranial (facial) nerve, which is
not affected in thyroid surgery. The nerves involved in turning the head are not near
the thyroid gland.
A health care provider prescribes an antihypertensive medication. Which over-
the-counter medication should the nurse teach the client to avoid because it
has the potential to counteract the effect of the antihypertensive?
a) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
b) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
c) Docusate sodium (Colace)
d) Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
d) Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
Pseudoephedrine has a pressor effect that may counteract antihypertensive
medications, causing an increase in blood pressure. Omeprazole does not interact
with antihypertensives. However, it can increase the action of phenytoin, digoxin,
clopidrogrel (Plavix), and cyclosporine. Acetaminophen does not have to be avoided
when receiving an antihypertensive. Docusate sodium does not have to be avoided
when receiving an antihypertensive.
What is SIADH (syndrome of inappropriate anti-diuretic hormone)
1. Complecation: cerebral edema, pulmonary edema, hyponatremia
2. Fluid restriction
3.Urinary catheter avoided do to risk of UTI
Heart failure (CHF) mnemonic: "F.A.I.L.U.R.E."
F - FAULTY valves - stenosis (too narrow), regurgitated (it leaks), infected.
A - ARRHYTHMIAS - Afib (atrium is queebering, blood pools), tachycardia.
I - INFARCTION (MI or CAD) - muscle is ischemic and dies.
L - LINEAGE (congenital [family Hx]).
U - UNCONTROLLED HTN - causes stiffening of wall ventricles.
R - RECREATIONAL DRUGS USE - cocaine and alcohol.
E - EVADORS - viruses/infections that attack the heart.
What happens when Na+ and Ca+ enter the cardiac cell?
Na+ - enters rapidly to start depolarization (myocardial contraction).
Ca+ - enter later to maintain it.
In an EKG/ECG what does a T wave reflect?
1. Ventricular repolarization
2. Upright in most leads
3. Last longer than ventricular depolarization
After an amputation, a client's residual limb is bandaged snugly throughout
the postoperative period. The nurse teaches the client that the primary
purpose of the rigid bandaging of the residual limb is to:
a) Prevent suture line infection
b) Promote drainage of secretions
