Exam 2: NSG3280/ NSG 3280 (2026/ 2027 Updated) Pathophysiology for Nurses I Review | Questions & Answers| Grade A| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions)- Galen

Exam 2: NSG3280/ NSG 3280 (2026/ 2027 Updated) Pathophysiology for Nurses I Review | Questions & Answers| Grade A| 100% Correct (Verified Solutions)- Galen Q. What is an example of a cognitive response to a mild level of anxiety? a. Increased respirations b. Acute sense of horror or dread c. Pacing the hall d. Increased concentration ANSWER d. Increased concentration Q. A client is experiencing hyperventilation, depersonalization, and palpitations. Which nursing diagnosis takes priority? a. Social isolation b. Ineffective breathing pattern c. Risk for suicide d. Fatigue ANSWER b. ineffective breathing pattern Q. The nurse has received evening report. Which client would the nurse need to assess first? a. A newly admitted client with a history of panic attacks. b. A client who slept only 2 to 3 hours last night because of nightmares. c. The client pacing the halls who says that his anxiety is 8 out of 10 (10 being highest anxiety). d. The client with a generalized anxiety disorder awaiting discharge. ANSWER C. the client pacing the halls who says that his anxiety is 8 out of 10 Q. Chlorpromazine is to psychosis as clonazepam is to: a. Depression b. A mood disorder c. Anxiety d. Movement disorders ANSWER C. Anxiety Q. Which client would the charge nurse assign to an agency nurse working on an in-patient psychiatric unit for the first time? a. A client experiencing passive suicidal ideations with a past history of an attempt. b. A client rating mood as 3/10 and attending but not participating in group therapy. c. A client lying in bed all day long in a fetal position and refusing all meals. d. A client admitted for the first time with a diagnosis of major depression. ANSWER b. A client rating mood as 3/10 and attending but not participating in group therapy. Q. In doing an assessment of the client for risk of suicide, which of the following questions are necessary? Select all that apply a. Do you have thoughts of killing yourself? (correct) b. Do you have a partner, spouse? c. Do you have a plan? (correct) d. Do you intend to kill yourself?(correct) ANSWER a. Do you have thoughts of killing yourself? c. Do you have a plan? d. Do you intend to kill yourself? Q. It is thought that the deficiency of what neurotransmitter may heighten the risk of suicide? a. Epinephrine b. Dopamine c. Serotonin d. Monoamine ANSWER c. Serotonin Q. A 75 year old client is admitted to the psychiatric unit following a suicide attempt by trying to hang himself in a closet in his home while his wife was in the basement doing the laundry. What interventions will be implemented to keep the client safe? Select all that apply: a. 1:1 observation b. Begin an antidepressant c. Restrict family visitors d. Assign the client a room close to the nurse's station ANSWER a. 1:1 observation b. Begin an antidepressant d. Assign the client a room close to the nurse's station Q. Which of the following nursing interventions apply to a client hospitalized for manic state of a bipolar disorder? Select all that apply. a. Decrease the environmental stimuli when client becomes agitated. b. Continually monitor the client's ability to tolerate frustration. c. Assess client's history of harming self or others. d. Encourage the client to attend morning exercise group. ANSWER a. Decrease the environmental stimuli when client becomes agitated. c. Assess client's history of harming self or others. d. Encourage the client to attend morning exercise group. Q. Which of the following medications are indicated in the treatment of bipolar disorder? Select all that apply. a. Valproic acid b. Methylphenidate c. Gabapentin d. Lithium ANSWER a. Valproic acid c. Gabapentin d. Lithium Q. Sarah has been diagnosed with Bipolar I disorder. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse find on the initial assessment? Select all that apply. a. elevated mood b. grandiosity c. pressured speech d. isolation ANSWER a. elevated mood b. grandiosity d. isolation Q. The estimated mean age of onset of a bipolar disorder is: a. 15 to 18 years b. 40 to 45 years c. 25 to 30 years d. 35 to 40 years ANSWER c. 25 to 30 years Q. what action will the nurse take to obtain an accurate baseline BP for a new pt a. Deflate the BP cuff at a rate of 5 to 10 mm Hg per second. b. Have the pt sit in a chair with the feet flat on the floor. c. Assist the pt to the supine position for BP measurements. d. Obtain 2 BP readings in the arm and average the results. ANSWER b- have the pt sit in a chair with the feet flat on the floor Q. Which information should a nurse include when teaching a pt with newly diagnosed hypertension? a. Increasing physical activity will control BP for most pts. b. Most pts are able to control BP through dietary changes. c. Annual BP checks will monitor treatment effectiveness. d. Hypertension is asymptomatic until organ damage occurs. ANSWER d Q. What action should a RN take first to help a patient with new-onset htn in making diet changes? a. Collect a detailed diet history. b. Provide a list of low-sodium foods. c. Help the patient make an appointment with a dietitian. d. Teach the patient about foods that are high in potassium. ANSWER a Q. When developing a plan for a pt with the following risk factors for CAD, a RN should focus on: a. family history of coronary artery disease. b. increased risk associated with the patient's gender. c. increased risk of cardiovascular disease as people age. d. elevation of the patient's low-density lipoprotein level. ANSWER d Q. Which info given by a pt admitted with stable angina will help the RN confirm this diagnosis? a. The pt says the pain "goes away" with 1 nitroglycerin tablet b. The patient states that the pain "wakes me up at night." c. The patient rates the pain at a level 3 to 5 (0-10 scale). d. The pt says the pain has been more frequent in the last week ANSWER a Q. Which ECG change is most important to report to the physician when caring for a pt with angina? a. Inverted P wave b. Sinus tachycardia c. ST-segment elevation d. First-degree atrioventricular block ANSWER c Q. The nurse would explain the etiology of heart failure after myocardial infarction (MI) as a. impairment of the contractile function of the ventricle. b. inability of the heart chambers to fill adequately. c. increased myocardial workload. d. increased oxygen demands of the myocardium. ANSWER a Q. When a pt is admitted with left ventricular heart failure, the nurse would ask the pt about: a. abdominal pain. b. breathlessness. c. leg swelling. d. nausea. ANSWER b Q. Auscultation of lung sounds of a pt in left ventricular heart failure would likely indicate: a. diminished sounds. b. grunting. c. wheezing. d. crackling sounds. ANSWER d Q. When a pt with heart failure is receiving loop diuretics, the RN would be sure to monitor serum a. calcium levels. b. enzyme levels. c. potassium levels. d. sodium levels. ANSWER c A nurse is about to administer IV digoxin to a client with CHF. Which action takes priority? a. Ask the client if he/she has ever had digoxin before. b. Assess the pt's pulse & hold the med if it is 60 beats/min. c. Prepare the client for any side effects of the medication. d. Provide info to the client on the med's expected effects. b The nurse would assess a heart rate of 55 beats/min as a normal finding in a client who: a. is an athlete. b. is obese. c. takes a diuretic. d. weighs less than 90 pounds. a A nurse quickly calculating a pt's heart rate by examining the ECG would count the number of a. large squares between P waves and multiply by 10. b. large squares between R waves and multiply by 10. c. P waves in a 6-inch strip and multiply by 5. d. R waves in a 6-inch strip and multiply by 10. d A client with a potassium level of 6.6 mEq/L would have a characteristic ECG configuration of a. increased PR interval. b. inverted QRS complex. c. no change. d. tall T wave. d A pt goes into sudden ventricular fibrillation. The priority action would be to immediately: a. administer a lidocaine bolus. b. administer atropine. c. administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). d. administer intravenous (IV) magnesium. c A RN would explain to a pt who has a demand pacemaker in place that this pacemaker functions by a. demanding the heart to contract at a preset rate. b. firing after the SA node has started the cycle. c. firing if the heart rate drops below a preset rate. d. stimulating the SA node to fire. c A RN instructing a pt in the proper administration of sublingual nitroglycerin would include: a. assess blood pressure for hypertension after each dose. b. repeat the dose every 5 minutes up to 3 times for chest pain c. store NTG tablets in the refrigerator for up to 6 months. d. take an aspirin before taking the first dose of NTG. b A RN knows that some goals have been met when a pt admitted for angina makes which menu choices a. Bran flakes with skim milk, apple slices, and orange juice b. French toast with syrup, grapefruit half, and skim milk c. Oatmeal with skim milk, one bacon slice, and hot tea d. Scrambled eggs, whole-wheat toast, and prune juice a 4 hours after the onset of pain from an MI, the RN would expect an increase in which lab result a. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) b. CK-MB c. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) d. Leukocyte count b When caring for a client immediately after an MI, the nurse's first priority would be a. monitoring for dysrhythmias. b. preventing an embolism. c. relieving pain. d. relieving the client's apprehension. c The nurse would explain to a client that increased levels of troponin I are evident within a. 1 to 2 hours after MI pain has started. b. 3 to 12 hours after MI pain has started. c. 7 to 9 hours after MI pain has started. d. 12 to 15 hours after MI pain has started. b Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to a cardiac catheterization? a. Client's level of anxiety b. Ability to turn self in bed c. Cardiac rhythm and heart rate d. Allergies to iodine-based agents d Which statement by a client alerts the nurse to the possibility of right-sided heart failure? a. "I sleep with four pillows at night." b. "My shoes fit really tight lately." c. "I wake up coughing every night." d. "I have trouble catching my breath." b The nurse is reviewing the lipid panel of a male patient. Which finding is most concerning? a. Cholesterol: 126 mg/dL b. High-density lipoprotein cholesterol (HDL-C): 48 mg/dL c. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol (LDL-C): 122 mg/dL d. Triglycerides: 198 mg/dL d A student nurse asks what "essential hypertension" is. What response by the RN is best? a. "It means it is caused by another disease." b. "It means it is 'essential' that it be treated." c. "It is hypertension with no specific cause." d. "It refers to severe and life-threatening hypertension." c A RN is caring for a pt with a DVT. What assessment indicates a priority outcome has been met? a. Ambulates with assistance b. Oxygen saturation of 98% c. Pain of 2/10 after medication d. Verbalizing risk factors b What is increased in hypertension that in turn causes an increase in the work of the heart? a. Preload b. Stroke volume c. Contractility d. Afterload d What should the nurse know that a heart murmur indicates? a. Valves that do not close correctly b. Pericardium that is inflamed c. Decrease in pacemaker cells d. Loud ventricular gallop a An age-related change in older adults that makes them susceptible to cardiovascular disease is: a. Increase in cardiac output b. Increase in stroke volume c. Stiff peripheral vessels d. Oxygen capacity improvement c What does treatment for essential hypertension focus on? a. Daily medication with mild diuretics b. Low-dose vasodilators c. Reduction of modifiable risks d. Combination of vasodilators and diuretics c Which lifestyle change has the greatest effect on reducing hypertension? a. Sodium restriction b. Reduction in alcohol consumption c. Daily aerobic exercise d. Weight reduction d What should the nurse explain to a patient as being the pacemaker of the heart? a. Bundle of His b. Sinoatrial node c. Purkinje's fibers d. Atrioventricular node b A pt has damage to the SA node. Which heart rates indicate that the pt's AV node has taken over a. 10 to 20 b. 20 to 35 c. 40 to 60 d. 80 to 100 c A RN is caring for a pt recovering from a cardiac catheterization. Which action is appropriate? a. Force 1000 mL of fluid per hour. b. Keep patient NPO until gag reflex is present. c. Encourage the patient to drink plenty of liquids. d. Hold fluid intake for 2 hours after the procedure. c A RN is caring for a pt whose troponin I level is elevated. Which action would be appropriate? a. Up as desired. b. Ambulate daily. c. Maintain bedrest. d. Ambulate twice daily. c How should the nurse describe preload to the patient who has been diagnosed with CHF? a. Ejection of blood from ventricles b. Degree of stretch in ventricles before systole c. Degree of muscle stretch in atrium during diastole d. Amount of force ventricles use to open valves & eject blood b A pt is receiving digoxin. Which symptom should a RN report for follow-up related to digoxin? a. Anorexia b. Constipation c. Skin flushing d. BP 118/68 mm Hg a A pt reports shortness of breath after lying down. How should the nurse document this finding? a. Orthopnea b. Exertional dyspnea c. Activity-induced dyspnea d. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea a A nurse is analyzing a pt's ECG. What should the nurse consider as normal for the P-R interval? a. 0.02 to 0.04 second b. 0.05 to 0.l0 second c. 0.12 to 0.20 second d. 0.21 to 0.30 second c When reviewing an ECG for a healthy patient, which of the following will be of most concern? a. The heart rate (HR) is 43 beats/minute. b. The PR interval is 0.21 seconds. c. There is a right bundle-branch block. d. The QRS duration is 0.13 seconds. a To determine the effects of therapy for a pt with CHF, which lab result will the nurse review? a. Myoglobin b. Homocysteine (Hcy) c. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) d. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) d the nurse teaches the patient being evaluated for rhythm disturbances with a Holter monitor to a. exercise more than usual while the monitor is in place. b. remove the electrodes when taking a shower or tub bath. c. keep a diary of daily activities while the monitor is worn. d. connect the recorder to a telephone transmitter once daily. c A RN is aware that the muscle layer of the heart which is responsible for contraction is the: a. endocardium. b. pericardium. c. mediastinum. d. myocardium. d How should the nurse advise a patient with an international normalized ratio (INR) of 5.8? a. Make arrangements to go to the emergency room immediately b. Increase fluid intake to 2000 mL/day c. Stop taking the anticoagulant &notify health care provider d. Add more leafy green vegetables to patient diet c What clinical manifestation is a common sign of digoxin toxicity? a. Seizures b. Vomiting c. Bradypnea d. Tachycardia b Nursing care of the child with Kawasaki disease is challenging because of which occurrence? a. The child's irritability b. Predictable disease course c. Complex antibiotic therapy d. The child's ongoing requests for food a A pt with stable angina is undergoing a 12-lead ECG. Which of the following is not expected? a. ST segment depression b. ST segment elevation c. T-wave flattening d. T-wave inversion b An essential aspect of teaching that may prevent recurrence of heart failure is a. notifying the physician of a 2-lb weight gain in 24 hours. b. compliance with diuretic therapy. c. taking nitroglycerin if chest pain occurs. d. assessment of an apical pulse. b Which of the following factors determines stroke volume? a. size of the heart and size of the heart valves b. age of the person and the condition of the heart c. preload, afterload, and contractility d. blood pressure and hormonal influences c Which of the following best describes the pathophysiology of Kawasaki disease? a. multisystem vasculitis that may affect the coronary arteries b. poor circulation due to faulty valves c. hypertrophy of the heart causing arrhythmias d. electrolyte imbalance causing faulty firing of the heart a vegetarians are at risk for what deficiency? a. B6 b. B12 c. Vitamin C d. B1 b pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of what? a. potassium b. intrinsic factor c. extrinsic factor d. factor VII b The lab that is used to measure the severity or worsening of heart failure. a. BMP b. BUN c. BNP d. Bx c The lab that is used to monitor effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) a. PT/INR b. Hgb. and Hct. c. PTT. d. BUN/Cr. a The acronym for medications/ interventions during an acute MI a. FAST b. MONA c. RICE d. PASS b A patient with thrombocytopenia has an increased risk for which of the following? a. Bleeding b. Infections c. Clotting d. None of the above a Which normal system helps with sodium and water retention to maintain blood pressure? a. RAAS b. SAIDH c. DI d. Hematopoeisis a Which part of MONA is incorrect? a. Morphine b. Oxygen c. Nitroglycerin d. Acetaminophen d Which type of shock is caused by a loss of large blood volumes? a. Cardiogenic b. Hypovolemic c. Septic d. Anaphylactic b Which of these is not a cancer prevention recommendation from The World Cancer association? a. Eat less salt b. Stop Drinking c. Increase red meat intake d. Move more c What is a mutated or damaged cell that "mimic" cancerous cells except they don't proliferate the body? a. DNA/RNA b. Oncogenes c. In-situ cells d. Tumor suppressor genes c What is one of the biggest risk factor for getting cancer? a. Eating b. Not wearing sunscreen c. Smog d. Smoking d The process when cancer cells move to other parts of the body and form secondary tumors is... a. metastasis b. Oncogenesis c. spreading d. cancer mobility a What system picks up toxins, waste and other unwanted materials to be removed from the body? a. Endocrine b. Respiratory c. Circulatory d. Lymphatic d The lack of which hormone may cause anemia in patients with renal failure? a. Creatinine b. Erythropoetin c. Albumin d. Thyroxine b Which of the following labs, when elevated, may indicate an inflammation? a. CRP b. Thyroxine c. BUN d. BNP a A patient receiving chemo may have their lowest WBC and platelet levels at which stage? a. 1-2 weeks after beginning therapy. b. 2 years after chemo is finished. c. After the first dose. d. This is not a side effect of chemo. a Crackles, dyspnea and frothy sputum is most consistent with which cardiac disorder? a. A-fib b. Right heart failure c. Asystole d. Left heart failure d Which of the following is NOT associated with an arterial occlusion? a. pain b. Pulselessness c. Pink d. Poikilothermy c Which of the following is NOT usually associated with neurovascular checks? a. Pupil response b. Movement c. Capillary refill and pulse d. Sensation a Which bacteria may contribute to heart valve disorders as well as some kidney disorders? a. MRSA b. Staph c. Strep d. HSV-1 c A 58-yr-old pt is in cardiac rehab. The nurse teaches the patient to stop exercising if what occurs? a. pain or dyspnea develop b. the respiratory rate increases to 30 c. the HR exceeds 150 bpm d. the HR is 30 bpm over the resting HR a What are side effects of chemotherapy & radiation? (SATA) a. N/V/D b. skin irritations c. increased energy d. hair loss/fatigue a,b,d what accurately describes the pathophysiology of CAD? a. partial or total occulsion of the coronary artery during the fibrous stage b. endothelial alteration by chemical irritants such as hyperlipidemia c. collateral circulation in the coronary circ is more likely to be present d. infection and fatty dietary intake are the basic underlying causes of ather b Which serum lipid elevation with LDL is strongly associated with CAD? a. apolipoproteins b. total serum cholesterol c. fasting triglycerides d. HDL c Which characteristics are associated with LDLs (SATA)... a. contains the most cholesterol b. carries lipids away from arteries to the liver c. has an affinity for arterial walls d. high levels correlate most closely with CAD a,c,d A 52-yr-old man is admitted to the ED with severe chest pain. On what basis would the nurse suspect an MI? a. pale, cool, clammy skin b. he reports nausea and vomited once at home c. he says he is anxious and feels an impending doom d. he reports no relief of the pain with rest or position change d What types of angina can occur in the absence of CAD (SATA)... a. silent ischemia b. microvasular angina c. Prinzmetal's angina d. chronic stable angina b,c Which tx is first for the patient with a confirmed MI to open the blocked artery within 90min of arrival to the ED? a. TMR b. Coronary Artery Bypass Graft (CABG) c. Stent placement d. Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) d A pt with CHF is treated with hCTZ, digoxin, and lisinopril to prevent dig toxicity, which should be monitored? a. Heart rate b. blood pressure c. potassium levels d. cholesterol levels c what describes the SA node's ability to discharge an electrical impulse spontaneously. a. excitability b. conductivity c. contractility d. automaticity d what accurately describes the PR interval (SATA)... a. 0.16 seconds b. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds c. 0.12 seconds d. measured from beginning of P wave to beginning of QRS complex b,d In the pt with a dysrhythmia, which assessment indicates a decreased cardiac output (CO)? a. hypertension and bradycardia b. chest pain and decreased mentation c. bounding pulses and a vetricular heave d. abdominal distention and hepatomegaly b A pt comes to the ED with ACS. What changes should the nurse expect to see on the EKG if MI injury has occurred? a. absent P wave b. Tall, peaked T wave c. a wide QT interval d. ST- segment elevation d The nurse is caring for a client with moderate anemia secondary to a bleeding ulcer. What action would be in the care? a. Schedule physical therapy after lunch b. Complete ADLs before breakfast c. Monitor PT/INR every morning d. Encourage foods high in iron d Which leukemia is seen in 80% of adults with acute leukemia and exhibits proliferation of precursors of granulocytes? a. Hairy cell leukemia b. Biphenotypic leukemia c. Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) d. Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) d What is meant by cellular depolarization & repolarization? a. heart cells contract & then rest b. heart conduction c. excitability of the heart d. relaxation of the heart a