West Coast University OB NURS 306 TEST BANK
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
2026/2027 Edition
Course Lead: Expert OB Nursing Professor
Subject: NURS 306 Obstetric Nursing
Ch 1-4: Antepartum, Genetics & Fetal Development (15 Questions)
Topic: Naegele's Rule & EDD Calculation (3 Questions)
A pregnant patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on April 7th. Using Naegele’s Rule,
what is the patient’s estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. January 10th
B. January 14th
C. February 14th
D. December 31st
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP (April 7 -> January
7), add 7 days (January 7 + 7 days = January 14), and add one year.
The nurse is calculating the EDD for a patient with an LMP of October 2nd. Which date
corresponds to the estimated delivery?
A. July 9th
B. June 25th
C. July 16th
D. June 9th
Answer: A
Rationale: October 2 minus 3 months = July 2. Add 7 days = July 9.
,(Calculation) A patient reports her LMP was May 12. Determine the Estimated Date of
Delivery.
A. February 19
B. January 26
C. February 5
D. January 19
Answer: A
Rationale: May 12 - 3 months = February 12. + 7 days = February 19.
Topic: Glucose Challenge Test (3 Questions)
A patient at 24 weeks gestation is undergoing a 1-hour 50-gram glucose challenge test (GCT).
The nurse explains that if the blood glucose level is above which value, a diagnostic 3-hour
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) is required?
A. 110 mg/dL
B. 130 mg/dL
C. 140 mg/dL
D. 160 mg/dL
Answer: C
Rationale: A screening value of 140 mg/dL or greater indicates the need for the follow-up 3-
hour OGTT.
The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient who completed the 1-hour glucose
challenge test. Which result requires the patient to proceed to the 3-hour diagnostic test?
A. 120 mg/dL
B. 135 mg/dL
C. 142 mg/dL
D. 100 mg/dL
Answer: C
,Rationale: 142 mg/dL exceeds the standard threshold of 140 mg/dL.
(Select All That Apply) The nurse is preparing a patient for the 1-hour glucose challenge test.
Which of the following instructions are correct?
A. You need to fast for 8 hours before the test.
B. You will drink a 50-gram glucose solution.
C. Your blood will be drawn exactly 1 hour after drinking the solution.
D. This test diagnoses gestational diabetes.
E. You may eat a normal breakfast before arriving.
Answer: B, C
Rationale: The 50g drink is standard, and blood is drawn 1 hour later. Fasting is not required
for the screening test (only the diagnostic 3-hour test). The screening test does not diagnose;
it identifies those at risk.
Topic: Teratogenic Effects (Rubella/MMR) (3 Questions)
A pregnant patient who is not immune to Rubella is exposed to the virus in the first trimester.
The nurse understands that the fetus is at highest risk for which complication?
A. Neural tube defects
B. Cardiac anomalies and deafness
C. Limb reduction defects
D. Cleft lip and palate
Answer: B
Rationale: Rubella infection in the first trimester is strongly associated with congenital heart
defects, cataracts, and deafness.
The nurse is administering vaccines to a postpartum patient who is Rubella non-immune.
Which statement indicates the patient understands the teaching?
A. "I can receive the MMR vaccine today because I am breastfeeding."
B. "I will need to wait until I stop breastfeeding to get the vaccine."
C. "I cannot get the vaccine because I am still pregnant."
, D. "I will need an injection of RhIg instead of the vaccine."
Answer: A
Rationale: The MMR is a live-virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. However,
it is safe to administer in the immediate postpartum period, even while breastfeeding.
(True/False) The MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine is a live-attenuated virus vaccine
and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal transmission.
Answer: True
Rationale: Live vaccines are generally avoided in pregnancy to prevent potential fetal harm.
Topic: Amniotic Fluid Index (2 Questions)
During a biophysical profile, an ultrasound technician measures four quadrants of amniotic
fluid pockets. The summed total is 4 cm. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Normal Amniotic Fluid Index
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Anhydramnios
Answer: C
Rationale: An AFI of less than 5 cm is diagnostic of oligohydramnios (decreased amniotic
fluid).
The nurse is caring for a patient with oligohydramnios (AFI < 5 cm). Which fetal complication
is the primary concern associated with this condition?
A. Macrosomia
B. Pulmonary hypoplasia and cord compression
C. Placenta accreta
D. Maternal hypertension
Answer: B
Rationale: Oligohydramnios can lead to pulmonary hypoplasia (lack of fluid pressure for lung
development) and umbilical cord compression due to lack of fluid cushioning.
EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS
2026/2027 Edition
Course Lead: Expert OB Nursing Professor
Subject: NURS 306 Obstetric Nursing
Ch 1-4: Antepartum, Genetics & Fetal Development (15 Questions)
Topic: Naegele's Rule & EDD Calculation (3 Questions)
A pregnant patient’s last menstrual period (LMP) began on April 7th. Using Naegele’s Rule,
what is the patient’s estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. January 10th
B. January 14th
C. February 14th
D. December 31st
Answer: B
Rationale: Naegele's Rule: Subtract 3 months from the first day of the LMP (April 7 -> January
7), add 7 days (January 7 + 7 days = January 14), and add one year.
The nurse is calculating the EDD for a patient with an LMP of October 2nd. Which date
corresponds to the estimated delivery?
A. July 9th
B. June 25th
C. July 16th
D. June 9th
Answer: A
Rationale: October 2 minus 3 months = July 2. Add 7 days = July 9.
,(Calculation) A patient reports her LMP was May 12. Determine the Estimated Date of
Delivery.
A. February 19
B. January 26
C. February 5
D. January 19
Answer: A
Rationale: May 12 - 3 months = February 12. + 7 days = February 19.
Topic: Glucose Challenge Test (3 Questions)
A patient at 24 weeks gestation is undergoing a 1-hour 50-gram glucose challenge test (GCT).
The nurse explains that if the blood glucose level is above which value, a diagnostic 3-hour
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) is required?
A. 110 mg/dL
B. 130 mg/dL
C. 140 mg/dL
D. 160 mg/dL
Answer: C
Rationale: A screening value of 140 mg/dL or greater indicates the need for the follow-up 3-
hour OGTT.
The nurse is reviewing the lab results of a patient who completed the 1-hour glucose
challenge test. Which result requires the patient to proceed to the 3-hour diagnostic test?
A. 120 mg/dL
B. 135 mg/dL
C. 142 mg/dL
D. 100 mg/dL
Answer: C
,Rationale: 142 mg/dL exceeds the standard threshold of 140 mg/dL.
(Select All That Apply) The nurse is preparing a patient for the 1-hour glucose challenge test.
Which of the following instructions are correct?
A. You need to fast for 8 hours before the test.
B. You will drink a 50-gram glucose solution.
C. Your blood will be drawn exactly 1 hour after drinking the solution.
D. This test diagnoses gestational diabetes.
E. You may eat a normal breakfast before arriving.
Answer: B, C
Rationale: The 50g drink is standard, and blood is drawn 1 hour later. Fasting is not required
for the screening test (only the diagnostic 3-hour test). The screening test does not diagnose;
it identifies those at risk.
Topic: Teratogenic Effects (Rubella/MMR) (3 Questions)
A pregnant patient who is not immune to Rubella is exposed to the virus in the first trimester.
The nurse understands that the fetus is at highest risk for which complication?
A. Neural tube defects
B. Cardiac anomalies and deafness
C. Limb reduction defects
D. Cleft lip and palate
Answer: B
Rationale: Rubella infection in the first trimester is strongly associated with congenital heart
defects, cataracts, and deafness.
The nurse is administering vaccines to a postpartum patient who is Rubella non-immune.
Which statement indicates the patient understands the teaching?
A. "I can receive the MMR vaccine today because I am breastfeeding."
B. "I will need to wait until I stop breastfeeding to get the vaccine."
C. "I cannot get the vaccine because I am still pregnant."
, D. "I will need an injection of RhIg instead of the vaccine."
Answer: A
Rationale: The MMR is a live-virus vaccine and is contraindicated during pregnancy. However,
it is safe to administer in the immediate postpartum period, even while breastfeeding.
(True/False) The MMR (Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine is a live-attenuated virus vaccine
and is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal transmission.
Answer: True
Rationale: Live vaccines are generally avoided in pregnancy to prevent potential fetal harm.
Topic: Amniotic Fluid Index (2 Questions)
During a biophysical profile, an ultrasound technician measures four quadrants of amniotic
fluid pockets. The summed total is 4 cm. How does the nurse interpret this finding?
A. Polyhydramnios
B. Normal Amniotic Fluid Index
C. Oligohydramnios
D. Anhydramnios
Answer: C
Rationale: An AFI of less than 5 cm is diagnostic of oligohydramnios (decreased amniotic
fluid).
The nurse is caring for a patient with oligohydramnios (AFI < 5 cm). Which fetal complication
is the primary concern associated with this condition?
A. Macrosomia
B. Pulmonary hypoplasia and cord compression
C. Placenta accreta
D. Maternal hypertension
Answer: B
Rationale: Oligohydramnios can lead to pulmonary hypoplasia (lack of fluid pressure for lung
development) and umbilical cord compression due to lack of fluid cushioning.
