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**TEST BANK – MATERNITY & PEDIATRIC
NURSING CHAPTER 4: COMMON
REPRODUCTIVE ISSUES (LATEST 2026
SOLUTION, GRADED A+)**
# SECTION 1: MENSTRUAL DISORDERS (Questions 1–25)
**1.** A 16-year-old female reports that she has not had a menstrual
period for 6 months. She had menarche at age 13. Her pregnancy test is
negative. What is the most appropriate medical term for this condition?
A) Oligomenorrhea
B) Amenorrhea
C) Menorrhagia
D) Dysmenorrhea
**Correct Answer:** B – Amenorrhea
**Rationale:** Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation. Primary
amenorrhea is no menarche by age 15. Secondary amenorrhea is absence
of menses for 3–6 months in a previously menstruating woman. This
patient has secondary amenorrhea.
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**2.** A 22-year-old female complains of heavy menstrual bleeding
lasting 8 days with passage of large clots. She changes pads every 1–2
hours. What is the most appropriate term for this condition?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
**Correct Answer:** A – Menorrhagia
**Rationale:** Menorrhagia is abnormally heavy or prolonged
menstrual bleeding (>7 days or >80 mL blood loss per cycle).
Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. Menometrorrhagia is heavy
bleeding at irregular intervals.
**3.** A 24-year-old female reports cyclic pelvic pain that begins 1 day
before her period and lasts for 2 days. She describes it as crampy and
midline. Ibuprofen provides relief. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Primary dysmenorrhea
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Ovarian cyst
**Correct Answer:** B – Primary dysmenorrhea
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**Rationale:** Primary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation without
pelvic pathology, caused by prostaglandin-induced uterine cramping. It
typically begins within 1–2 days of menses and responds to NSAIDs.
**4.** A 28-year-old female with a history of pelvic inflammatory
disease (PID) now presents with chronic pelvic pain and dyspareunia.
She has a history of Chlamydia infection. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Secondary dysmenorrhea
C) Primary dysmenorrhea
D) Mittelschmerz
**Correct Answer:** B – Secondary dysmenorrhea
**Rationale:** Secondary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation due to
underlying pelvic pathology (endometriosis, PID, fibroids,
adenomyosis). History of PID suggests adhesions or chronic pelvic pain.
**5.** A 32-year-old female with a history of endometriosis is trying to
conceive. Which symptom is most strongly associated with
endometriosis?
A) Heavy, regular periods
B) Cyclic pelvic pain that worsens over time
C) Postcoital bleeding
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D) Painless vaginal bleeding
**Correct Answer:** B – Cyclic pelvic pain that worsens over time
**Rationale:** Endometriosis typically presents with progressive
dysmenorrhea, chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and infertility. Pain
often begins before menses and extends into the period.
**6.** A 42-year-old female reports heavy, prolonged menstrual
bleeding for the past 6 months. Ultrasound shows a 6 cm submucosal
fibroid. What is the most likely cause of her menorrhagia?
A) Endometrial hyperplasia
B) Submucosal leiomyoma (fibroid)
C) Adenomyosis
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
**Correct Answer:** B – Submucosal leiomyoma (fibroid)
**Rationale:** Submucosal fibroids (distorting the endometrial cavity)
are the most common cause of heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia).
Subserosal fibroids typically do not cause bleeding abnormalities.
**7.** A 20-year-old female with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and acne
has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m². What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
**TEST BANK – MATERNITY & PEDIATRIC
NURSING CHAPTER 4: COMMON
REPRODUCTIVE ISSUES (LATEST 2026
SOLUTION, GRADED A+)**
# SECTION 1: MENSTRUAL DISORDERS (Questions 1–25)
**1.** A 16-year-old female reports that she has not had a menstrual
period for 6 months. She had menarche at age 13. Her pregnancy test is
negative. What is the most appropriate medical term for this condition?
A) Oligomenorrhea
B) Amenorrhea
C) Menorrhagia
D) Dysmenorrhea
**Correct Answer:** B – Amenorrhea
**Rationale:** Amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation. Primary
amenorrhea is no menarche by age 15. Secondary amenorrhea is absence
of menses for 3–6 months in a previously menstruating woman. This
patient has secondary amenorrhea.
,2|Page
**2.** A 22-year-old female complains of heavy menstrual bleeding
lasting 8 days with passage of large clots. She changes pads every 1–2
hours. What is the most appropriate term for this condition?
A) Menorrhagia
B) Metrorrhagia
C) Menometrorrhagia
D) Oligomenorrhea
**Correct Answer:** A – Menorrhagia
**Rationale:** Menorrhagia is abnormally heavy or prolonged
menstrual bleeding (>7 days or >80 mL blood loss per cycle).
Metrorrhagia is bleeding between periods. Menometrorrhagia is heavy
bleeding at irregular intervals.
**3.** A 24-year-old female reports cyclic pelvic pain that begins 1 day
before her period and lasts for 2 days. She describes it as crampy and
midline. Ibuprofen provides relief. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Primary dysmenorrhea
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Ovarian cyst
**Correct Answer:** B – Primary dysmenorrhea
,3|Page
**Rationale:** Primary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation without
pelvic pathology, caused by prostaglandin-induced uterine cramping. It
typically begins within 1–2 days of menses and responds to NSAIDs.
**4.** A 28-year-old female with a history of pelvic inflammatory
disease (PID) now presents with chronic pelvic pain and dyspareunia.
She has a history of Chlamydia infection. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Endometriosis
B) Secondary dysmenorrhea
C) Primary dysmenorrhea
D) Mittelschmerz
**Correct Answer:** B – Secondary dysmenorrhea
**Rationale:** Secondary dysmenorrhea is painful menstruation due to
underlying pelvic pathology (endometriosis, PID, fibroids,
adenomyosis). History of PID suggests adhesions or chronic pelvic pain.
**5.** A 32-year-old female with a history of endometriosis is trying to
conceive. Which symptom is most strongly associated with
endometriosis?
A) Heavy, regular periods
B) Cyclic pelvic pain that worsens over time
C) Postcoital bleeding
, 4|Page
D) Painless vaginal bleeding
**Correct Answer:** B – Cyclic pelvic pain that worsens over time
**Rationale:** Endometriosis typically presents with progressive
dysmenorrhea, chronic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and infertility. Pain
often begins before menses and extends into the period.
**6.** A 42-year-old female reports heavy, prolonged menstrual
bleeding for the past 6 months. Ultrasound shows a 6 cm submucosal
fibroid. What is the most likely cause of her menorrhagia?
A) Endometrial hyperplasia
B) Submucosal leiomyoma (fibroid)
C) Adenomyosis
D) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
**Correct Answer:** B – Submucosal leiomyoma (fibroid)
**Rationale:** Submucosal fibroids (distorting the endometrial cavity)
are the most common cause of heavy menstrual bleeding (menorrhagia).
Subserosal fibroids typically do not cause bleeding abnormalities.
**7.** A 20-year-old female with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, and acne
has a body mass index (BMI) of 32 kg/m². What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
