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COMSAE Exam Prep 2026: Actual COMLEX-Level Questions & Correct Detailed Answers

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This comprehensive study guide is designed for osteopathic medical students preparing for the COMSAE (Comprehensive Osteopathic Medical Self-Assessment Examination) and COMLEX-USA Level 1/2. It contains over 150 actual exam-style questions with verified correct answers and detailed rationales. Core topics include: internal medicine (idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura – isolated thrombocytopenia, ITP diagnosis of exclusion), orthopedics (pars interarticularis fracture/spondylolysis in figure skater), pediatrics (congenital diaphragmatic hernia – scaphoid abdomen, respiratory distress, chest radiography), psychiatry (tardive dyskinesia from long-term fluphenazine – switch to clozapine), infectious disease (oral candidiasis in immunocompromised – white exudate with punctate bleeding on scraping), obstetrics/gynecology (bacterial vaginosis in pregnancy – clue cells, pH 4.5, preterm labor risk), emergency medicine (tension pneumothorax – distended neck veins, hyperresonance, needle decompression), general surgery (perforated peptic ulcer – free air under diaphragm, surgical consultation), trauma (scald burns most common cause of emergency burns in children under 2 years), pulmonology (bronchiolitis – RSV, wheezing, boggy turbinates), hematology (CMV mononucleosis – negative Monospot, heterophile-negative), neurology (subarachnoid hemorrhage – sudden headache, seizure, xanthochromia, LP when CT negative), endocrinology (anorexia nervosa – decreased FSH, amenorrhea, lanugo, electrolyte abnormalities), rheumatology (rotator cuff tear – positive drop arm test, weakness at 60° abduction), ophthalmology (central retinal artery occlusion – cherry-red spot, afferent pupillary defect, painless monocular vision loss), gastroenterology (insulinoma – recurrent hypoglycemia, 72-hour fast with insulin levels), cardiology (ventricular fibrillation – defibrillation, hypokalemia-induced arrhythmia), nephrology (congenital adrenal hyperplasia – 21-hydroxylase deficiency, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, ambiguous genitalia), public health (selection bias – tertiary care center with higher C-section rate), oncology (hilar mass – bronchoscopy for central lesion), pharmacology (ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema – lisinopril, discontinue), biostatistics (p-value interpretation – 5% probability due to chance), infectious disease (measles – cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, Koplik spots, maculopapular rash), thoracic surgery (pneumothorax – thoracostomy), end-of-life care (proximate cause legal definition), congestive heart failure (decrease left ventricular filling pressure), neurology (anterior cerebral artery occlusion – contralateral leg weakness, grasp/suck reflexes), dermatology (Stevens-Johnson syndrome – antibiotic trigger, conjunctivitis, mucocutaneous lesions), endocrinology (cirrhosis contraindication to estrogen HRT), sports medicine (thoracic outlet syndrome – scalene tension, paresthesia after fall), ECG (left atrial enlargement – mitral stenosis, P mitrale), pediatrics (early intervention program for developmental delay – autism signs), osteopathic manipulative medicine (sacral rocking for parasympathetic tone, facilitated positional release for OA dysfunction, myofascial release of midthoracic spine for sympathetic tone, temporal rocking for facial nerve/Bell’s palsy, FPR to upper thoracics for sympathetic normalization), and preventive medicine (inactivated polio vaccine for travel to Southeast Asia). Ideal for COMLEX Level 1/2, COMSAE, and osteopathic medical board exam preparation.

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COMSAE EXAM PREP NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL i i i i i i



EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED i i i i i



ANSWERS i




✅ A 22-year-old woman presents to the office for evaluation of
i i i i i i i i i i i



malaise and easy bruising. She also reports increased menses
i i i i i i i i i


over the past 2 months. Review of records reveals a hospital
i i i i i i i i i i i


admission 6 months ago secondary to viral pneumonia. Physical i i i i i i i i i


examination findings are normal. Laboratory study results are i i i i i i i i


normal except for a platelet count of 45 × 103/mcL (reference
i i i i i i i i i i i


range: 150-450 × 103/mcL). The most likely diagnosis is
i i i i i i i i i



A. factor VII deficiency i i i



B. IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schönlein purpura)
i i i i



C. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura i i i



D. thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura i i i



E. von Willebrand disease - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > C. IDIOPATHIC
i i i i i i i i i i


THROMBOCYTOPENIC PURPURA (ITP) i i i



An acquired form of a low platelet count secondary to antibody
i i i i i i i i i i i


formation against GpIIb/IIIa on platelets, without any perturbation i i i i i i i i


of the structure or function of WBCs, RBCs, or coagulation factors
i i i i i i i i i i i


(i.e., isolated thrombocytopenia). It is a diagnosis of exclusion
i i i i i i i i i


without specific clinical or laboratory parameters. i i i i i i
i
i


✅ A 21-year-old woman presents to the office with a 6-month
i i i i i i i i i i i



history of increasing low back pain. She reports that she competes
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as a figure skater, and the pain began following a bad landing. She
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describes the pain as achy and localized to the lumbosacral i i i i i i i i i i


junction. A radiograph of the spine taken 1 month ago reveals the
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findings shown in the exhibit. Neurologic examination findings are
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normal, with no focal motor deficits. Structural examination
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reveals increased tone in the lumbar paravertebral muscles with
i i i i i i i i i

,Pagei 2i ofi 89i
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midline tenderness in the lumbosacral area. Which of the following
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injuries did this patient most likely sustain?
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A. acute L3 flexion somatic dysfunction
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B .acute right unilateral sacral flexion
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C. fracture of the L5 pars interarticularis i i i i i i



D. L5 vertebral compression fracture
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E. muscle strain of the quadratus lumborum - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer >
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C. FRACTURE OF THE L5 PARS INTERARTICULARIS
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i
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✅ A male neonate is evaluated in the labor and delivery room
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immediately after delivery for tachypnea and room air hypoxia. The i i i i i i i i i i


patient was delivered via cesarean section due to fetal tachycardia
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and non-reassuring fetal heart tones. The mother had limited
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prenatal care. Vital signs reveal a respiratory rate of 80-100/min.
i i i i i i i i i i


Physical examination reveals intercostal and subcostal
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retractions and nasal flaring. The abdomen appears scaphoid. i i i i i i i i


Chest auscultation reveals decreased lung sounds on the left and a
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right shift of heart sounds. The most appropriate diagnostic test is
i i i i i i i i i i i



A. arterial blood gas analysis i i i i



B. chest radiography i i



C. echocardiography i



D. fluoroscopy i



E. oxygen challenge test - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > B. CHESTi i i i i i i i i i



RADIOGRAPHY i

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The clinical scenario describes a neonate w/respiratory distress
i i i i i i i i


immediately after birth, w/ signs including tachypnea, nasal i i i i i i i i


flaring, intercostal and subcostal retractions, decreased lung
i i i i i i i


sounds on the left, and a rightward shift of the heart sounds. The
i i i i i i i i i i i i i


scaphoid abdomen is particularly concerning for congenital
i i i i i i i


diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), a condition where abdominal i i i i i i i


contents herniate into the chest, leading to lung hypoplasia and
i i i i i i i i i i


displacement of the heart and mediastinum. i i i i i i
i


Chest radiography is the most appropriate diagnostic test to
i i i i i i i i i


confirm the diagnosis by visualizing the herniated abdominal
i i i i i i i i


organs within the chest cavity. Other options, such as arterial blood
i i i i i i i i i i i


gas analysis or echocardiography, do not provide the immediate
i i i i i i i i i


anatomical information needed in this scenario. i i i i i i
i


A 53-year-old man is brought to the office by a staff member from
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the group home where he has resided for the past 4 years. The staff
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member reports that the patient has a 1-year history of gradually
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worsening mouth and tongue movements. The movements are not
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apparent when he is sleeping. Past medical history reveals chronic
i i i i i i i i i i


schizophrenia, which has been treated with long-acting injectable i i i i i i i i


antipsychotics for approximately 25 years. He has no other known i i i i i i i i i i


neurologic history. His only current medication is fluphenazine
i i i i i i i i


decanoate. Physical examination reveals thrusting movements of i i i i i i i


the tongue to the left and frequent grimacing that can be partially
i i i i i i i i i i i i


controlled by the patient but is exacerbated when he is distracted.
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The most appropriate treatment is to slowly taper fluphenazine
i i i i i i i i i


and start i i



A. carbidopa-levodopa i



B. clozapine i



C. dantrolene i



D. phenytoin i



E. tizanidine - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > B. CLOZAPINE i i i i i i i i

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An atypical antipsychotic mainly used for treatment-resistant
i i i i i i i


schizophrenia that has a ↓ risk of extrapyramidal symptoms i i i i i i i i i


compared to typical antipsychotics. Its most dangerous adverse i i i i i i i i


effect is life-threatening agranulocytosis; as a result, frequent
i i i i i i i i


blood testing is required after initiating treatment.
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i


A 28-year-old man presents to the office with a 14-day history of
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sore throat, foul taste in his mouth, and heartburn. Past medical
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history reveals hemophilia and a transfusion reaction 15 years ago.
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The patient's temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F). Physical examination
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reveals cervical lymphadenopathy and thick white exudate on the
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oropharynx and tongue. Scraping of the exudate causes punctate i i i i i i i i i


mucosal bleeding. This patient's pharyngeal exudate is most likely
i i i i i i i i i


due to i i



A. bacterial pharyngitis i i



B. oral and esophageal candidiasis i i i i



C. premalignant oral leukoplakia i i i



D. squamous cell carcinoma of the pharynx i i i i i i



E. viral pharyngitis - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > B. oral & esophageal
i i i i i i i i i i i


candidiasis i



The patient presents with a sore throat, foul taste in the mouth, and
i i i i i i i i i i i i i


heartburn, accompanied by cervical lymphadenopathy and thick i i i i i i i


white exudate on the oropharynx and tongue. The exudate causes
i i i i i i i i i i


punctate mucosal bleeding when scraped, which is highly i i i i i i i i


suggestive of oral candidiasis (thrush), particularly in an i i i i i i i i


immunocompromised individual or someone with a disrupted oral i i i i i i i i


environment, such as after antibiotic use or with chronic i i i i i i i i i



disease. i
i


Oral candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species,
i i i i i i i i i i


most commonly Candida albicans. The key features include the
i i i i i i i i i


white patches that can be scraped off, often leaving a raw, bleeding
i i i i i i i i i i i i

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Number of pages
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Written in
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