CySA+ Chapter Test
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
1. Netstat can provide all the following information ex- d.) while it is possible
cept? to correlate the running
process with netstat and
a.) Listening Ports process manager, netstat
b.) Remotely Connected hosts IP address alone cannot give you the
c.) Name of Program that opened the Socket user that opened a socket.
d.) Name of the User who opened the Socket
2. A Security Analyst could test a team against social en- c.) Footing printing is a
gineering attacks by all except which of the following? technical operation gath-
ering data on a logical de-
a.) Pretexting vice.
b.) Spear-Fishing
c.) Footprinting
d.) tailgating
3. When performing a capture for wireless analysis, what d.) the wireless card must
mode must the wireless card support? be capable of entering
monitor mode in order to
a.) Managed capture AP beacons and
b.) Ad Hoc traffic.
c.) Mesh
d.) Monitor
4. When conducting a full packet capture of network traf- a.) with full capture iden-
fic, which of the following is NOT a concern? tifying source and desti-
nation information is very
a.) Easily identifying the source and destination of the simple
traffic
b.) Legal Consequences
c.) Privacy Implications
d.) data storage capacity
, CySA+ Chapter Test
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
5. What two factors are considered in making a quantita- c.) Potential Loss and
tive assessment on risk? Probability of Occurrence
a.) Expected value and probability of occurrence
b.) Expected value and probability of vulnerability
c.) Potential loss and probability of occurrence
d.) Potential loss and expected value
6. Popular framework that aims to standardize automat- b.) Security Content Au-
ed vulnerability assessment, management and compli- tomation Protocol - a
ance level is known as what? method of using open
standards, called compo-
a.) CVSS nents, to identify software
b.) SCAP flaws and configuration is-
c.) CVE sues.
d.) PCAP
7. Which of the following are parameters that organiza- d.) The types of controls al-
tions should NOT use to determine the classification of ready in place are NOT a
data? consideration when deter-
mining the classification of
a.) The level of damage probable if data is disclosed data
b.) Legal, regulatory, or contractual responsibilities to
protect the data
c.) The age of data
d.) The types of controls that have been assigned to
safeguard the data
8. Which of the following statements is true about false d.) False Positives waste
positives? resources and thus should
be identified early
a.) False positives are not generally a problem but true
negatives might be
, CySA+ Chapter Test
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
b.)False positives are indicative of human error in an
automated scanning process.
c.) False positives are more problematic for smaller
organizations then larger ones.
d.) False positives waste Organizational resources
9. Which NIST publication outlines various controls for a.) 800-53
government agencies and information systems?
a.) SP 800-53
b.) SP 800-37
c.) ISO 27000
d.) ISO 27001
10. Which of the following standards, composed of 5 core d.) ITIL
volumes, is widely accepted for service and informa-
tion systems?
a.) Information Security Management System (ISMS)
b.) Cyber Security Framework (CSF)
c.) The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)
d.) Information Technology Infrastructure Library
(ITIL)
11. Which of the following NIST publications describes a.) CSF
a voluntary cybersecurity structure for organizations
that are part of the critical infrastructure?
a.) Cyber Security Framework (CSF)
b.) International Organization for Standardization
(ISO)
c.) The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)
, CySA+ Chapter Test
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
d.) Control Objectives for Information and related
Technology (COBIT)
12. ISO 27000 describes which of the following? b.) ISMS
a.) Control Objectives for Information and related
Technology (COBIT)
b.) Information Security Management System (ISMS)
c.) Architecture Development Method (ADM)
d.) International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)
13. What device is part of a formal process to improve b.) Maturity Model
a cybersecurity posture by developing comprehensive
and repeatable security processes unique to the orga-
nization?
a.) Verification
b.) Maturity Model
c.) Quality Control
d.) Regulatory Compliance
14. Which component of the CSF describes the degree of b.) Implementation Tiers
sophistication of cybersecurity practices?
a.) Framework Core
b.) Implementation Tiers
c.) NIST SP 800-53 controls
d.) ITIL processes
15. Which are the key functions of the Framework Core of a.) ID, Protect, Detect, Re-
the CSF? spond, Recover!
a.) Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
1. Netstat can provide all the following information ex- d.) while it is possible
cept? to correlate the running
process with netstat and
a.) Listening Ports process manager, netstat
b.) Remotely Connected hosts IP address alone cannot give you the
c.) Name of Program that opened the Socket user that opened a socket.
d.) Name of the User who opened the Socket
2. A Security Analyst could test a team against social en- c.) Footing printing is a
gineering attacks by all except which of the following? technical operation gath-
ering data on a logical de-
a.) Pretexting vice.
b.) Spear-Fishing
c.) Footprinting
d.) tailgating
3. When performing a capture for wireless analysis, what d.) the wireless card must
mode must the wireless card support? be capable of entering
monitor mode in order to
a.) Managed capture AP beacons and
b.) Ad Hoc traffic.
c.) Mesh
d.) Monitor
4. When conducting a full packet capture of network traf- a.) with full capture iden-
fic, which of the following is NOT a concern? tifying source and desti-
nation information is very
a.) Easily identifying the source and destination of the simple
traffic
b.) Legal Consequences
c.) Privacy Implications
d.) data storage capacity
, CySA+ Chapter Test
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
5. What two factors are considered in making a quantita- c.) Potential Loss and
tive assessment on risk? Probability of Occurrence
a.) Expected value and probability of occurrence
b.) Expected value and probability of vulnerability
c.) Potential loss and probability of occurrence
d.) Potential loss and expected value
6. Popular framework that aims to standardize automat- b.) Security Content Au-
ed vulnerability assessment, management and compli- tomation Protocol - a
ance level is known as what? method of using open
standards, called compo-
a.) CVSS nents, to identify software
b.) SCAP flaws and configuration is-
c.) CVE sues.
d.) PCAP
7. Which of the following are parameters that organiza- d.) The types of controls al-
tions should NOT use to determine the classification of ready in place are NOT a
data? consideration when deter-
mining the classification of
a.) The level of damage probable if data is disclosed data
b.) Legal, regulatory, or contractual responsibilities to
protect the data
c.) The age of data
d.) The types of controls that have been assigned to
safeguard the data
8. Which of the following statements is true about false d.) False Positives waste
positives? resources and thus should
be identified early
a.) False positives are not generally a problem but true
negatives might be
, CySA+ Chapter Test
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
b.)False positives are indicative of human error in an
automated scanning process.
c.) False positives are more problematic for smaller
organizations then larger ones.
d.) False positives waste Organizational resources
9. Which NIST publication outlines various controls for a.) 800-53
government agencies and information systems?
a.) SP 800-53
b.) SP 800-37
c.) ISO 27000
d.) ISO 27001
10. Which of the following standards, composed of 5 core d.) ITIL
volumes, is widely accepted for service and informa-
tion systems?
a.) Information Security Management System (ISMS)
b.) Cyber Security Framework (CSF)
c.) The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)
d.) Information Technology Infrastructure Library
(ITIL)
11. Which of the following NIST publications describes a.) CSF
a voluntary cybersecurity structure for organizations
that are part of the critical infrastructure?
a.) Cyber Security Framework (CSF)
b.) International Organization for Standardization
(ISO)
c.) The Open Group Architecture Framework (TOGAF)
, CySA+ Chapter Test
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_8kh5uz
d.) Control Objectives for Information and related
Technology (COBIT)
12. ISO 27000 describes which of the following? b.) ISMS
a.) Control Objectives for Information and related
Technology (COBIT)
b.) Information Security Management System (ISMS)
c.) Architecture Development Method (ADM)
d.) International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC)
13. What device is part of a formal process to improve b.) Maturity Model
a cybersecurity posture by developing comprehensive
and repeatable security processes unique to the orga-
nization?
a.) Verification
b.) Maturity Model
c.) Quality Control
d.) Regulatory Compliance
14. Which component of the CSF describes the degree of b.) Implementation Tiers
sophistication of cybersecurity practices?
a.) Framework Core
b.) Implementation Tiers
c.) NIST SP 800-53 controls
d.) ITIL processes
15. Which are the key functions of the Framework Core of a.) ID, Protect, Detect, Re-
the CSF? spond, Recover!
a.) Identify, Protect, Detect, Respond, Recover
