ACOLS MLD TRAINING ACTUAL EXAM 2026-2027 BANK
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A 68-year-old male presents with chest pain and ST-segment
elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely
occluded?
A. Left anterior descending
B. Left circumflex
C. Right coronary
D. Left main
Answer: C. Right coronary. ST-elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF)
typically indicates an inferior wall myocardial infarction. The right
coronary artery supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle in the
majority of individuals who are right-dominant.
2. During a code blue, the team leader must ensure effective
communication. Which statement best exemplifies closed-loop
communication?
A. "I need an amp of epinephrine."
B. "Does anyone have any suggestions?"
,C. "I am giving epinephrine 1 mg IV push now."
D. "Prepare to administer epinephrine."
Answer: C. "I am giving epinephrine 1 mg IV push now." Closed-loop
communication involves the sender giving clear information and the
receiver repeating it back to confirm understanding. Verbally
announcing the action as it occurs closes the loop by confirming the
order was heard and executed.
3. A patient in cardiac arrest has an initial rhythm of pulseless
ventricular tachycardia. After a shock is delivered, what is the
immediate next step?
A. Check rhythm
B. Resume chest compressions
C. Give epinephrine
D. Intubate the patient
Answer: B. Resume chest compressions. Current ACLS guidelines
emphasize minimizing interruptions in chest compressions. After
defibrillation, compressions should resume immediately without a
rhythm check to maintain coronary perfusion pressure.
4. What is the recommended depth of chest compressions in an adult
during CPR?
A. 1 to 1.5 inches
B. At least 2 inches
C. 2.5 to 3 inches
,D. As deep as possible
Answer: B. At least 2 inches. The American Heart Association
recommends a compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) in adults
to generate adequate cardiac output, while avoiding excessive depth
greater than 2.4 inches (6 cm) which may cause injuries.
5. Which rhythm is characterized by a completely irregular rhythm with
no discernible P waves?
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Sinus tachycardia
Answer: B. Atrial fibrillation. The absence of organized atrial
depolarization results in no P waves and an irregularly irregular
ventricular response. It is a common arrhythmia managed with rate
control, rhythm control, and anticoagulation.
6. A 55-year-old female becomes unresponsive. The monitor shows a
narrow complex tachycardia at 210 bpm. She is hypotensive and
diaphoretic. What is the recommended immediate management?
A. Adenosine 6 mg IV push
B. Synchronized cardioversion
C. Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
D. Diltiazem 20 mg IV bolus
, Answer: B. Synchronized cardioversion. The patient is unstable with
signs of poor perfusion due to a tachyarrhythmia. Immediate
synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable supraventricular
tachycardia according to ACLS guidelines.
7. Which agent is considered first-line for symptomatic bradycardia
unresponsive to atropine?
A. Epinephrine infusion
B. Dopamine infusion
C. Transcutaneous pacing
D. Amiodarone bolus
Answer: C. Transcutaneous pacing. When atropine is ineffective or
unavailable for symptomatic bradycardia, transcutaneous pacing is the
next step. Epinephrine or dopamine infusions are second-line
alternatives while awaiting pacing.
8. What is the maximum total dose of atropine in the management of
symptomatic bradycardia?
A. 1 mg
B. 2 mg
C. 3 mg
D. 4 mg
Answer: C. 3 mg. The recommended dose is 0.5 mg IV push every 3 to 5
minutes, up to a total of 3 mg. Full vagolytic effect is achieved at this
dose, and further administration is unlikely to increase heart rate.
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS EXAM
QUESTIONS WILL COME FROM HERE (100% CORRECT
ANSWERS A+ GRADED
1. A 68-year-old male presents with chest pain and ST-segment
elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely
occluded?
A. Left anterior descending
B. Left circumflex
C. Right coronary
D. Left main
Answer: C. Right coronary. ST-elevation in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF)
typically indicates an inferior wall myocardial infarction. The right
coronary artery supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle in the
majority of individuals who are right-dominant.
2. During a code blue, the team leader must ensure effective
communication. Which statement best exemplifies closed-loop
communication?
A. "I need an amp of epinephrine."
B. "Does anyone have any suggestions?"
,C. "I am giving epinephrine 1 mg IV push now."
D. "Prepare to administer epinephrine."
Answer: C. "I am giving epinephrine 1 mg IV push now." Closed-loop
communication involves the sender giving clear information and the
receiver repeating it back to confirm understanding. Verbally
announcing the action as it occurs closes the loop by confirming the
order was heard and executed.
3. A patient in cardiac arrest has an initial rhythm of pulseless
ventricular tachycardia. After a shock is delivered, what is the
immediate next step?
A. Check rhythm
B. Resume chest compressions
C. Give epinephrine
D. Intubate the patient
Answer: B. Resume chest compressions. Current ACLS guidelines
emphasize minimizing interruptions in chest compressions. After
defibrillation, compressions should resume immediately without a
rhythm check to maintain coronary perfusion pressure.
4. What is the recommended depth of chest compressions in an adult
during CPR?
A. 1 to 1.5 inches
B. At least 2 inches
C. 2.5 to 3 inches
,D. As deep as possible
Answer: B. At least 2 inches. The American Heart Association
recommends a compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm) in adults
to generate adequate cardiac output, while avoiding excessive depth
greater than 2.4 inches (6 cm) which may cause injuries.
5. Which rhythm is characterized by a completely irregular rhythm with
no discernible P waves?
A. Atrial flutter
B. Atrial fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Sinus tachycardia
Answer: B. Atrial fibrillation. The absence of organized atrial
depolarization results in no P waves and an irregularly irregular
ventricular response. It is a common arrhythmia managed with rate
control, rhythm control, and anticoagulation.
6. A 55-year-old female becomes unresponsive. The monitor shows a
narrow complex tachycardia at 210 bpm. She is hypotensive and
diaphoretic. What is the recommended immediate management?
A. Adenosine 6 mg IV push
B. Synchronized cardioversion
C. Amiodarone 150 mg IV over 10 minutes
D. Diltiazem 20 mg IV bolus
, Answer: B. Synchronized cardioversion. The patient is unstable with
signs of poor perfusion due to a tachyarrhythmia. Immediate
synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable supraventricular
tachycardia according to ACLS guidelines.
7. Which agent is considered first-line for symptomatic bradycardia
unresponsive to atropine?
A. Epinephrine infusion
B. Dopamine infusion
C. Transcutaneous pacing
D. Amiodarone bolus
Answer: C. Transcutaneous pacing. When atropine is ineffective or
unavailable for symptomatic bradycardia, transcutaneous pacing is the
next step. Epinephrine or dopamine infusions are second-line
alternatives while awaiting pacing.
8. What is the maximum total dose of atropine in the management of
symptomatic bradycardia?
A. 1 mg
B. 2 mg
C. 3 mg
D. 4 mg
Answer: C. 3 mg. The recommended dose is 0.5 mg IV push every 3 to 5
minutes, up to a total of 3 mg. Full vagolytic effect is achieved at this
dose, and further administration is unlikely to increase heart rate.
