ATI PN Fundamental Exam ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | ATI PN
Fundamentals | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Questions 1–20)
Q1: A 68-year-old postoperative client reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. Vital
signs: BP 92/58 mmHg, HR 118 bpm, RR 28/min, SpO₂ 86% on room air. Which action should the PN take
first?
A. Notify the provider immediately
B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and apply oxygen at 10 L/min via non-rebreather mask.
[CORRECT]
D. Obtain a 12-lead EKG
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Following the ABC priority framework, the PN must address airway and breathing first. High-
Fowler's position maximizes lung expansion, and high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask is indicated
for severe hypoxemia (SpO₂ <90%). Notifying the provider and obtaining an EKG are important but
secondary to immediate oxygenation. Low-flow nasal cannula is insufficient for this level of hypoxemia.
(ATI Fundamentals Ch. 27, p. 189 – Airway Priority)
Q2: A PN is caring for four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the PN assess first?
A. A client with a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg
B. A client with a respiratory rate of 8/min and pinpoint pupils. [CORRECT]
C. A client requesting pain medication for a headache rated 3/10
D. A client with a blood glucose of 185 mg/dL
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min with pinpoint pupils indicates opioid-induced respiratory
depression, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention (naloxone, airway support).
This follows the ABC priority framework—airway and breathing take precedence over all other needs.
Hypertension, mild headache, and hyperglycemia are not immediately life-threatening. (ATI
Fundamentals Ch. 27, p. 189 – ABC Priority)
Q3: A PN is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate to
delegate?
A. Assessing a postoperative client's incision for signs of infection
B. Measuring and recording intake and output for a stable client. [CORRECT]
C. Administering oral medications to a client with dysphagia
D. Teaching a client about wound care before discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PN may delegate tasks that are routine, non-invasive, and do not require nursing
judgment, such as measuring and recording I&O. Assessment, medication administration, and client
education require nursing licensure and cannot be delegated to UAP. The PN remains accountable for
delegated tasks and must verify completion. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 6, p. 42 – Delegation Principles)
Q4: A client with a history of COPD has an advance directive stating "do not resuscitate" (DNR). The
client becomes unresponsive with no pulse and no respirations. What is the PN's appropriate action?
A. Initiate CPR immediately
B. Honor the DNR order and notify the provider and family. [CORRECT]
C. Begin rescue breathing only
D. Call a code and start compressions while verifying the order
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A valid DNR order must be honored. The PN should verify the order in the chart, notify the
provider, and contact the family. Initiating CPR violates the client's documented wishes and constitutes
battery. If there is any question about the validity or currency of the DNR order, the PN should verify
with the charge nurse or provider, but CPR should not be initiated once a valid DNR is confirmed. (ATI
Fundamentals Ch. 6, p. 45 – Advance Directives)
Q5: A PN overhears two UAPs discussing a client's HIV status in the cafeteria. Which action should the
PN take?
,A. Ignore the conversation to avoid conflict
B. Report the breach to the nurse manager immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Confront the UAPs in front of other staff
D. Document the incident in the client's medical record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Discussion of protected health information (PHI) in a public area violates HIPAA. The PN must
report the breach to the nurse manager for immediate investigation and remediation. Ignoring the
breach enables further violations. Confronting staff publicly is unprofessional. Documentation in the
medical record is inappropriate as it does not address the privacy violation. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 6, p.
44 – HIPAA Compliance)
Q6: A client falls while attempting to get out of bed unassisted. The client has no injuries and vital signs
are stable. What is the PN's first action after ensuring client safety?
A. Complete an incident report. [CORRECT]
B. Document the fall in the client's medical record as "client fell due to nurse negligence"
C. Call the provider immediately
D. Reorient the client and return to other duties
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An incident report (variance report) must be completed for any client fall to document the
circumstances, identify contributing factors, and initiate quality improvement measures. The medical
record should contain factual documentation of the event and assessment findings without assigning
blame. Provider notification and client reorientation are important but the incident report is the priority
for system-wide safety. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 6, p. 46 – Incident Reporting)
Q7: A PN is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB) on airborne precautions. Which PPE is required
when entering the room?
A. Gown and gloves only
B. Surgical mask
C. N95 respirator. [CORRECT]
D. Face shield only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator (or PAPR) because TB is transmitted via
droplet nuclei (<5 microns) that remain suspended in air and can be inhaled. Surgical masks do not filter
these small particles. Gown and gloves are added if contact with respiratory secretions is anticipated. A
face shield protects against splashes but not inhalation. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 11, p. 78 – Transmission-
Based Precautions)
, Q8: A client with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection is on contact precautions. Which hand hygiene
method is most effective when leaving the room?
A. Alcohol-based hand rub
B. Soap and water handwashing for at least 20 seconds. [CORRECT]
C. Antiseptic wipes
D. Gloves alone are sufficient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Soap and water with mechanical
friction physically removes spores from hands. Alcohol-based rubs are ineffective against spore-forming
organisms. Antiseptic wipes do not provide adequate coverage or friction. Gloves reduce but do not
eliminate hand contamination and must be removed followed by hand hygiene. (ATI Fundamentals Ch.
11, p. 79 – Hand Hygiene)
Q9: A PN is preparing to administer heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously. The vial reads 10,000 units/mL.
How many mL will the PN administer?
A. 0.25 mL
B. 0.5 mL. [CORRECT]
C. 1.0 mL
D. 2.0 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using the dosage calculation formula: Desired (5,000 units) ÷ Available (10,000 units/mL) =
0.5 mL. Heparin is administered subcutaneously in the abdomen at least 2 inches from the umbilicus
using a 25-gauge, ⅝-inch needle at a 90-degree angle. The nurse does not aspirate or massage the site.
(ATI Fundamentals Ch. 32, p. 234 – Dosage Calculations)
Q10: A PN is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feedings. Before administering a
feeding, which action is essential?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water
B. Verify tube placement by checking gastric pH (≤5.5) or auscultating air insufflation. *CORRECT+
C. Position the client supine
D. Warm the formula in a microwave
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Verification of NG tube placement before each feeding is critical to prevent pulmonary
EXAM 2026/2027 | ATI PN
Fundamentals | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Questions 1–20)
Q1: A 68-year-old postoperative client reports sudden onset of shortness of breath and chest pain. Vital
signs: BP 92/58 mmHg, HR 118 bpm, RR 28/min, SpO₂ 86% on room air. Which action should the PN take
first?
A. Notify the provider immediately
B. Apply oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Place the client in high-Fowler's position and apply oxygen at 10 L/min via non-rebreather mask.
[CORRECT]
D. Obtain a 12-lead EKG
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Following the ABC priority framework, the PN must address airway and breathing first. High-
Fowler's position maximizes lung expansion, and high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask is indicated
for severe hypoxemia (SpO₂ <90%). Notifying the provider and obtaining an EKG are important but
secondary to immediate oxygenation. Low-flow nasal cannula is insufficient for this level of hypoxemia.
(ATI Fundamentals Ch. 27, p. 189 – Airway Priority)
Q2: A PN is caring for four clients on a medical-surgical unit. Which client should the PN assess first?
A. A client with a blood pressure of 148/92 mmHg
B. A client with a respiratory rate of 8/min and pinpoint pupils. [CORRECT]
C. A client requesting pain medication for a headache rated 3/10
D. A client with a blood glucose of 185 mg/dL
,Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8/min with pinpoint pupils indicates opioid-induced respiratory
depression, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention (naloxone, airway support).
This follows the ABC priority framework—airway and breathing take precedence over all other needs.
Hypertension, mild headache, and hyperglycemia are not immediately life-threatening. (ATI
Fundamentals Ch. 27, p. 189 – ABC Priority)
Q3: A PN is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is appropriate to
delegate?
A. Assessing a postoperative client's incision for signs of infection
B. Measuring and recording intake and output for a stable client. [CORRECT]
C. Administering oral medications to a client with dysphagia
D. Teaching a client about wound care before discharge
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The PN may delegate tasks that are routine, non-invasive, and do not require nursing
judgment, such as measuring and recording I&O. Assessment, medication administration, and client
education require nursing licensure and cannot be delegated to UAP. The PN remains accountable for
delegated tasks and must verify completion. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 6, p. 42 – Delegation Principles)
Q4: A client with a history of COPD has an advance directive stating "do not resuscitate" (DNR). The
client becomes unresponsive with no pulse and no respirations. What is the PN's appropriate action?
A. Initiate CPR immediately
B. Honor the DNR order and notify the provider and family. [CORRECT]
C. Begin rescue breathing only
D. Call a code and start compressions while verifying the order
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A valid DNR order must be honored. The PN should verify the order in the chart, notify the
provider, and contact the family. Initiating CPR violates the client's documented wishes and constitutes
battery. If there is any question about the validity or currency of the DNR order, the PN should verify
with the charge nurse or provider, but CPR should not be initiated once a valid DNR is confirmed. (ATI
Fundamentals Ch. 6, p. 45 – Advance Directives)
Q5: A PN overhears two UAPs discussing a client's HIV status in the cafeteria. Which action should the
PN take?
,A. Ignore the conversation to avoid conflict
B. Report the breach to the nurse manager immediately. [CORRECT]
C. Confront the UAPs in front of other staff
D. Document the incident in the client's medical record
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Discussion of protected health information (PHI) in a public area violates HIPAA. The PN must
report the breach to the nurse manager for immediate investigation and remediation. Ignoring the
breach enables further violations. Confronting staff publicly is unprofessional. Documentation in the
medical record is inappropriate as it does not address the privacy violation. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 6, p.
44 – HIPAA Compliance)
Q6: A client falls while attempting to get out of bed unassisted. The client has no injuries and vital signs
are stable. What is the PN's first action after ensuring client safety?
A. Complete an incident report. [CORRECT]
B. Document the fall in the client's medical record as "client fell due to nurse negligence"
C. Call the provider immediately
D. Reorient the client and return to other duties
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: An incident report (variance report) must be completed for any client fall to document the
circumstances, identify contributing factors, and initiate quality improvement measures. The medical
record should contain factual documentation of the event and assessment findings without assigning
blame. Provider notification and client reorientation are important but the incident report is the priority
for system-wide safety. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 6, p. 46 – Incident Reporting)
Q7: A PN is caring for a client with tuberculosis (TB) on airborne precautions. Which PPE is required
when entering the room?
A. Gown and gloves only
B. Surgical mask
C. N95 respirator. [CORRECT]
D. Face shield only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Airborne precautions require an N95 respirator (or PAPR) because TB is transmitted via
droplet nuclei (<5 microns) that remain suspended in air and can be inhaled. Surgical masks do not filter
these small particles. Gown and gloves are added if contact with respiratory secretions is anticipated. A
face shield protects against splashes but not inhalation. (ATI Fundamentals Ch. 11, p. 78 – Transmission-
Based Precautions)
, Q8: A client with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection is on contact precautions. Which hand hygiene
method is most effective when leaving the room?
A. Alcohol-based hand rub
B. Soap and water handwashing for at least 20 seconds. [CORRECT]
C. Antiseptic wipes
D. Gloves alone are sufficient
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based hand sanitizers. Soap and water with mechanical
friction physically removes spores from hands. Alcohol-based rubs are ineffective against spore-forming
organisms. Antiseptic wipes do not provide adequate coverage or friction. Gloves reduce but do not
eliminate hand contamination and must be removed followed by hand hygiene. (ATI Fundamentals Ch.
11, p. 79 – Hand Hygiene)
Q9: A PN is preparing to administer heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously. The vial reads 10,000 units/mL.
How many mL will the PN administer?
A. 0.25 mL
B. 0.5 mL. [CORRECT]
C. 1.0 mL
D. 2.0 mL
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using the dosage calculation formula: Desired (5,000 units) ÷ Available (10,000 units/mL) =
0.5 mL. Heparin is administered subcutaneously in the abdomen at least 2 inches from the umbilicus
using a 25-gauge, ⅝-inch needle at a 90-degree angle. The nurse does not aspirate or massage the site.
(ATI Fundamentals Ch. 32, p. 234 – Dosage Calculations)
Q10: A PN is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube for enteral feedings. Before administering a
feeding, which action is essential?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water
B. Verify tube placement by checking gastric pH (≤5.5) or auscultating air insufflation. *CORRECT+
C. Position the client supine
D. Warm the formula in a microwave
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Verification of NG tube placement before each feeding is critical to prevent pulmonary
