WGU D115 ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FOR
THE ADVANCED NURSE EXAM 2026 | 214
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently
than females?
Sex-linked recessive. Since males have only one X and one Y, if
the affected X chromosome carries the illness, it will be
expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the
leading known cause?
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of both intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (PGT). CVS is performed
between weeks 11–14, amniocentesis between weeks 15–20,
and PGT is done on the embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by a zygote having
one normal chromosome and one chromosome with a missing
,gene?
Cri du chat syndrome. It is caused by a DNA deletion,
presenting as microcephaly, low birth weight, and a high-
pitched, piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?
The disease is transmitted through female carriers. Females
have two X chromosomes; a carrier mother can pass an
unaffected X to a son or daughter, and a daughter may not
show signs because her other X (from father) can compensate.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease
rate among the entire population to the disease rate in an
unexposed population?
Relative risk. It is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence
of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases
based on?
Observation and evaluation of each case individually. Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases,
so individualized assessment is most accurate.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
The imprinted gene. It is the silent gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have
impaired inflammation and wound healing?
Underlying chronic illness. A generalized inflammatory
,response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to
fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against
parasite invasion?
Eosinophils. They are the body's primary defense against
parasites.
11. What phagocytoses bacteria?
Macrophages. They work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Helper T cells.
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering an antigen?
The ability to recognize something foreign. Immunogenicity is
primarily based on foreign recognition.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood
is administered, causing an ABO incompatibility?
The complement pathway is activated. This occurs in response
to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic
dermatitis?
An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, including ringworm and athlete's
, foot) and yeasts (including candida and aspergillus). Fungal
infection is called mycosis.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that
lab results can detect infection?
4 to 10 days for HIV RNA testing. HIV antibody testing may take
23 to 90 days. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out false
negatives.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
They are released during bacterial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a
decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
Decreased fat consumption. It has been widely studied and
demonstrated to decrease colon cancer risk.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with
asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop?
Lung cancer and lung lining cancer (mesothelioma). Asbestos
exposure increases risk of both.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's
wavelength. UVB rays cause thymine dimers, leading to cell
death or cancer (basal and squamous cell carcinoma).
22. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on
reducing?
THE ADVANCED NURSE EXAM 2026 | 214
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS
1. Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently
than females?
Sex-linked recessive. Since males have only one X and one Y, if
the affected X chromosome carries the illness, it will be
expressed.
2. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the
leading known cause?
Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of both intellectual
disability and fetal miscarriage.
3. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies?
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and
preimplantation genetic testing (PGT). CVS is performed
between weeks 11–14, amniocentesis between weeks 15–20,
and PGT is done on the embryo prior to implantation.
4. Which genetic disorder is characterized by a zygote having
one normal chromosome and one chromosome with a missing
,gene?
Cri du chat syndrome. It is caused by a DNA deletion,
presenting as microcephaly, low birth weight, and a high-
pitched, piercing cry.
5. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations?
The disease is transmitted through female carriers. Females
have two X chromosomes; a carrier mother can pass an
unaffected X to a son or daughter, and a daughter may not
show signs because her other X (from father) can compensate.
6. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease
rate among the entire population to the disease rate in an
unexposed population?
Relative risk. It is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence
of disease.
7. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases
based on?
Observation and evaluation of each case individually. Many
factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases,
so individualized assessment is most accurate.
8. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair?
The imprinted gene. It is the silent gene of a gene pair.
9. What is the primary reason that some older adults have
impaired inflammation and wound healing?
Underlying chronic illness. A generalized inflammatory
,response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to
fight against illness.
10. Which cells are the body's primary defense against
parasite invasion?
Eosinophils. They are the body's primary defense against
parasites.
11. What phagocytoses bacteria?
Macrophages. They work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria.
12. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen?
Helper T cells.
13. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of
immunogenicity when considering an antigen?
The ability to recognize something foreign. Immunogenicity is
primarily based on foreign recognition.
14. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood
is administered, causing an ABO incompatibility?
The complement pathway is activated. This occurs in response
to blood incompatibility.
15. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic
dermatitis?
An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction.
16. Which four infections are considered fungal infections?
Dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, including ringworm and athlete's
, foot) and yeasts (including candida and aspergillus). Fungal
infection is called mycosis.
17. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that
lab results can detect infection?
4 to 10 days for HIV RNA testing. HIV antibody testing may take
23 to 90 days. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out false
negatives.
18. What is a characteristic of exotoxins?
They are released during bacterial growth.
19. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a
decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
Decreased fat consumption. It has been widely studied and
demonstrated to decrease colon cancer risk.
20. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with
asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop?
Lung cancer and lung lining cancer (mesothelioma). Asbestos
exposure increases risk of both.
21. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's
wavelength. UVB rays cause thymine dimers, leading to cell
death or cancer (basal and squamous cell carcinoma).
22. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on
reducing?
