NSG 5544 Quiz 1 | Questions and
Answers | winter 2026 | 100% Correct -
South College.
Section A: Cellular Biology & Genetics (Q1-15)
Q1. A 72-year-old patient presents with muscle wasting and decreased strength.
This process is best described as:
a) Hypertrophy
b) Hyperplasia
c) Metaplasia
d) Atrophy
Answer: d) Atrophy
Rationale: Atrophy is the decrease in cell size, leading to tissue wasting. This is common
in aging (senile atrophy) or disuse .
Q2. A patient with chronic GERD has a biopsy showing the normal squamous
epithelium of the esophagus replaced by columnar epithelium. This change is:
a) Dysplasia
b) Metaplasia
c) Anaplasia
d) Hyperplasia
Answer: b) Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type with
another. Barrett's esophagus is a classic example .
Q3. Which cellular change is considered the most critical precursor to malignancy?
a) Metaplasia
, b) Dysplasia
c) Atrophy
d) Hypertrophy
Answer: b) Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia refers to disordered cell growth, size, and organization. Severe
dysplasia is often considered a direct precursor to carcinoma in situ .
Q4. A researcher studies a drug that inhibits the *Bcl-2* gene product. What is the
primary mechanism of action?
a) Preventing cell division
b) Repairing DNA damage
c) Promoting apoptosis
d) Inhibiting angiogenesis
Answer: c) Promoting apoptosis
Rationale: The Bcl-2 family regulates apoptosis. Bcl-2 is an anti-apoptotic protein;
inhibiting it allows programmed cell death to proceed .
Q5. A patient has a tumor with a high mitotic index and anaplasia. These findings
suggest:
a) Benign growth
b) High-grade malignancy
c) Hormonal responsiveness
d) Low metastatic potential
Answer: b) High-grade malignancy
Rationale: Anaplasia (loss of differentiation) and a high mitotic index are hallmark
features of aggressive, high-grade malignant tumors .
Q6. Which cellular adaptation is most likely in the myocardium of a patient with
long-standing, uncontrolled hypertension?
a) Hyperplasia
b) Hypertrophy
c) Atrophy
Answers | winter 2026 | 100% Correct -
South College.
Section A: Cellular Biology & Genetics (Q1-15)
Q1. A 72-year-old patient presents with muscle wasting and decreased strength.
This process is best described as:
a) Hypertrophy
b) Hyperplasia
c) Metaplasia
d) Atrophy
Answer: d) Atrophy
Rationale: Atrophy is the decrease in cell size, leading to tissue wasting. This is common
in aging (senile atrophy) or disuse .
Q2. A patient with chronic GERD has a biopsy showing the normal squamous
epithelium of the esophagus replaced by columnar epithelium. This change is:
a) Dysplasia
b) Metaplasia
c) Anaplasia
d) Hyperplasia
Answer: b) Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type with
another. Barrett's esophagus is a classic example .
Q3. Which cellular change is considered the most critical precursor to malignancy?
a) Metaplasia
, b) Dysplasia
c) Atrophy
d) Hypertrophy
Answer: b) Dysplasia
Rationale: Dysplasia refers to disordered cell growth, size, and organization. Severe
dysplasia is often considered a direct precursor to carcinoma in situ .
Q4. A researcher studies a drug that inhibits the *Bcl-2* gene product. What is the
primary mechanism of action?
a) Preventing cell division
b) Repairing DNA damage
c) Promoting apoptosis
d) Inhibiting angiogenesis
Answer: c) Promoting apoptosis
Rationale: The Bcl-2 family regulates apoptosis. Bcl-2 is an anti-apoptotic protein;
inhibiting it allows programmed cell death to proceed .
Q5. A patient has a tumor with a high mitotic index and anaplasia. These findings
suggest:
a) Benign growth
b) High-grade malignancy
c) Hormonal responsiveness
d) Low metastatic potential
Answer: b) High-grade malignancy
Rationale: Anaplasia (loss of differentiation) and a high mitotic index are hallmark
features of aggressive, high-grade malignant tumors .
Q6. Which cellular adaptation is most likely in the myocardium of a patient with
long-standing, uncontrolled hypertension?
a) Hyperplasia
b) Hypertrophy
c) Atrophy
