NR507 Midterm Exam NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Advanced Pathophysiology
Midterm Exam Latest Chamberlain College Of Nursing(VERSION A).
Cellular Biology, Genetics & Neoplasia (Questions 1–20)
1. Which cellular organelle is responsible for ATP production through oxidative
phosphorylation?
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Mitochondrion
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
Rationale: The mitochondrion is the powerhouse of the cell, responsible for ATP
production through oxidative phosphorylation via the electron transport chain.
This process generates approximately 36 ATP molecules per glucose molecule .
2. Which cellular process is responsible for the programmed death of cells
without triggering inflammation?
,A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Autophagy
D) Metaplasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs in response to
physiologic or pathologic stimuli. It is characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin
condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies without inflammation. Necrosis
is unprogrammed and triggers inflammation .
3. A patient is diagnosed with a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in a single
gene. This type of disorder is classified as:
A) Chromosomal disorder
B) Multifactorial disorder
C) Mendelian disorder
D) Mitochondrial disorder
Answer: C
,Rationale: Mendelian disorders are caused by mutations in a single gene and
follow predictable inheritance patterns (autosomal dominant, autosomal
recessive, or X-linked). Examples include cystic fibrosis, Huntington disease, and
sickle cell anemia .
4. A 58-year-old woman with lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is informed her
condition carries a 30% lifetime risk of invasive cancer. Which hallmark of
neoplasia best explains this field-effect predisposition?
A) Genomic instability
B) Sustained proliferative signaling
C) Evading immune destruction
D) Activating invasion & metastasis
Answer: A
Rationale: Genomic instability generates cumulative mutations across entire
epithelial fields, explaining the multifocal and bilateral cancer risk seen with LCIS.
This field effect predisposes all epithelial tissue in the region to malignant
transformation .
5. Which statement about proto-oncogenes is accurate?
A) They are tumor suppressor genes
, B) They normally promote cell growth and division
C) They are always mutated in cancer
D) They inhibit apoptosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that regulate cell growth and
division. When mutated or overexpressed, they become oncogenes that promote
uncontrolled cell proliferation .
6. The development of Barrett esophagus, where stratified squamous epithelium
is replaced by intestinal-type columnar epithelium, is an example of:
A) Dysplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Anaplasia
D) Hyperplasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible substitution of one differentiated cell type
by another better able to withstand an adverse environment. Barrett esophagus
is a premalignant condition caused by chronic acid reflux .
Midterm Exam Latest Chamberlain College Of Nursing(VERSION A).
Cellular Biology, Genetics & Neoplasia (Questions 1–20)
1. Which cellular organelle is responsible for ATP production through oxidative
phosphorylation?
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Mitochondrion
D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Answer: C
Rationale: The mitochondrion is the powerhouse of the cell, responsible for ATP
production through oxidative phosphorylation via the electron transport chain.
This process generates approximately 36 ATP molecules per glucose molecule .
2. Which cellular process is responsible for the programmed death of cells
without triggering inflammation?
,A) Necrosis
B) Apoptosis
C) Autophagy
D) Metaplasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Apoptosis is programmed cell death that occurs in response to
physiologic or pathologic stimuli. It is characterized by cell shrinkage, chromatin
condensation, and formation of apoptotic bodies without inflammation. Necrosis
is unprogrammed and triggers inflammation .
3. A patient is diagnosed with a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in a single
gene. This type of disorder is classified as:
A) Chromosomal disorder
B) Multifactorial disorder
C) Mendelian disorder
D) Mitochondrial disorder
Answer: C
,Rationale: Mendelian disorders are caused by mutations in a single gene and
follow predictable inheritance patterns (autosomal dominant, autosomal
recessive, or X-linked). Examples include cystic fibrosis, Huntington disease, and
sickle cell anemia .
4. A 58-year-old woman with lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS) is informed her
condition carries a 30% lifetime risk of invasive cancer. Which hallmark of
neoplasia best explains this field-effect predisposition?
A) Genomic instability
B) Sustained proliferative signaling
C) Evading immune destruction
D) Activating invasion & metastasis
Answer: A
Rationale: Genomic instability generates cumulative mutations across entire
epithelial fields, explaining the multifocal and bilateral cancer risk seen with LCIS.
This field effect predisposes all epithelial tissue in the region to malignant
transformation .
5. Which statement about proto-oncogenes is accurate?
A) They are tumor suppressor genes
, B) They normally promote cell growth and division
C) They are always mutated in cancer
D) They inhibit apoptosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Proto-oncogenes are normal genes that regulate cell growth and
division. When mutated or overexpressed, they become oncogenes that promote
uncontrolled cell proliferation .
6. The development of Barrett esophagus, where stratified squamous epithelium
is replaced by intestinal-type columnar epithelium, is an example of:
A) Dysplasia
B) Metaplasia
C) Anaplasia
D) Hyperplasia
Answer: B
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible substitution of one differentiated cell type
by another better able to withstand an adverse environment. Barrett esophagus
is a premalignant condition caused by chronic acid reflux .
