PN VATI Comprehensive Predictor Green Light
Exam ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | VATI PN
Predictor Green Light | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Total Questions: 100 | Time Suggested: 2 hours (120 minutes)
Green Light Readiness Score: 92+ (92% to pass)
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (20 Questions)
Management of Care (14 Questions)
Q1: An LPN is caring for a client 1 hour after a total hip replacement. The client reports sudden chest
pain and shortness of breath. Which action should the LPN take first?
A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
C. Notify the registered nurse (RN) immediately [CORRECT]
D. Check the client's oxygen saturation
Rationale: Sudden chest pain and shortness of breath post-hip surgery are classic signs of a pulmonary
embolism (PE), a life-threatening emergency. The LPN must notify the RN or provider immediately as
this is beyond the scope of independent LPN intervention. Immediate RN notification triggers rapid
response, diagnostic confirmation, and emergency treatment (anticoagulation, possible thrombolytics).
Vital signs and oxygen can be initiated after or while notifying.
Q2: A client with a prescription for wrist restraints is actively trying to remove them. Which action by the
LPN demonstrates correct restraint use?
A. Tie the restraint straps to the movable bed rail
B. Apply the restraints every 2 hours for 30 minutes
C. Remove the restraint every 2 hours to assess skin and circulation
D. Secure the restraint with a quick-release knot to the bed frame [CORRECT]
,Rationale: Restraint safety standards require securing restraints with a quick-release knot to the bed
frame (never to a movable side rail, which could cause injury). Restraints are removed at least every 2
hours for range of motion, skin assessment, toileting, and hydration. Option C describes a release
schedule but omits the critical detail of quick-release knot safety, making D the most complete and
correct answer for restraint application.
Q3: Which task is appropriate for the LPN to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a postoperative client's incision for signs of infection
B. Measuring and recording the intake and output of a client with stable heart failure [CORRECT]
C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic client about foot care
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication for a client with cancer
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine, non-invasive tasks for stable clients with predictable outcomes,
including measuring and recording intake and output. Assessment (A), client teaching (C), and
evaluation of medication effectiveness (D) require nursing judgment and are within the scope of the LPN
or RN, not appropriate for delegation to UAP.
Q4: An LPN receives a telephone prescription from a provider for a new medication. What is the LPN's
first action?
A. Immediately administer the medication to the client
B. Write the prescription in the client's chart and have another nurse read it back
C. Document the prescription only after administering the medication
D. Read back the complete prescription to the provider for verification [CORRECT]
Rationale: The LPN must read back the complete telephone prescription to the provider for verification
before transcribing or administering the medication. This "read-back" protocol prevents transcription
errors and ensures accuracy. The LPN should include the medication name, dose, route, frequency, and
any special instructions during the read-back.
Q5: A client is scheduled for surgery and tells the LPN, "I don't want the surgery anymore. I'm going
home." What is the LPN's best response?
A. "You signed the consent form already, so you must have the surgery."
B. "I'll call the surgeon to come talk to you, but you have the right to refuse treatment." [CORRECT]
C. "If you leave now, your insurance won't cover any of this."
D. "The surgeon knows what's best for you. Let me get your pre-op medications."
,Rationale: Clients have the legal right to refuse treatment at any time, even after signing informed
consent. The LPN must respect the client's autonomy while ensuring the client understands the
consequences of refusal. The appropriate response is to notify the provider and support the client's right
to self-determination without coercion or abandonment.
Q6: Which action by the LPN demonstrates proper understanding of HIPAA regulations?
A. Discussing a client's diagnosis with the client's neighbor who called to check on them
B. Leaving a client's chart open at the nurses' station
C. Providing client information to the client's authorized representative with proper identification
[CORRECT]
D. Faxing client records to an unknown number without verification
Rationale: HIPAA requires that protected health information (PHI) be disclosed only to authorized
individuals with proper verification. The client's authorized representative, with appropriate
identification, may receive information. Discussing PHI with unauthorized persons (A), leaving charts
unsecured (B), or faxing to unverified numbers (D) are all HIPAA violations.
Q7: An LPN witnesses a UAP roughly handling a client with dementia. What is the LPN's first action?
A. Complete an incident report at the end of the shift
B. Immediately intervene to stop the behavior and ensure client safety [CORRECT]
C. Report the UAP to the state board of nursing
D. Wait to see if the behavior happens again before acting
Rationale: Client safety is the priority. The LPN must immediately intervene to stop any abusive or rough
handling, ensure the client is safe, and then report the incident to the charge nurse or supervisor.
Delaying action (A, D) places the client at continued risk. Reporting to the state board (C) may be
appropriate later but is not the first action.
Q8: A client with a living will states they do not want cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The client
codes. What should the LPN do?
A. Begin CPR immediately regardless of the living will
B. Honor the client's wishes and do not initiate CPR, ensuring the advance directive is documented and
available [CORRECT]
C. Call the family to ask if they want CPR performed
D. Initiate CPR until the provider arrives to make a decision
, Rationale: A valid living will (advance directive) is a legal document that expresses the client's wishes
regarding end-of-life care. The LPN must honor the client's documented wishes and not initiate CPR. The
LPN should ensure the advance directive is in the chart and notify the provider and appropriate
personnel. Family wishes do not override a valid advance directive.
Q9: The LPN is caring for four clients. Which client should the LPN assess first?
A. A client with stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) awaiting discharge
B. A client with a new colostomy who needs discharge teaching
C. A client with a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg and complaints of dizziness [CORRECT]
D. A client requesting a PRN laxative for constipation
Rationale: Prioritization follows the ABC framework and acute vs. chronic principles. A blood pressure of
88/52 mm Hg with dizziness indicates hypotension and potential shock, requiring immediate assessment
and intervention. This is an acute, potentially life-threatening situation that takes priority over stable
clients (A), teaching (B), or comfort needs (D).
Q10: An LPN is assigned to care for a client with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The client's family
arrives and demands that CPR be performed if the client codes. What is the LPN's best action?
A. Agree to perform CPR if the family insists
B. Explain that the DNR order reflects the client's wishes and notify the RN or provider to discuss with
the family [CORRECT]
C. Refuse to discuss the DNR with the family
D. Call the hospital ethics committee immediately
Rationale: The DNR order reflects the client's documented wishes and must be honored. The LPN should
explain this to the family in a compassionate manner and involve the RN or provider to facilitate further
discussion. The LPN does not have the authority to override a valid DNR order based on family demands.
Q11: Which task is within the LPN's scope of practice?
A. Initiating a blood transfusion
B. Developing a plan of care for a newly admitted client
C. Administering oral medications to a stable client with predictable outcomes [CORRECT]
D. Performing the initial assessment of a client in the emergency department
Rationale: LPNs can administer oral medications to stable clients with predictable outcomes. Initiating
blood transfusions (A), developing initial plans of care (B), and performing initial assessments in acute
Exam ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 | VATI PN
Predictor Green Light | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Total Questions: 100 | Time Suggested: 2 hours (120 minutes)
Green Light Readiness Score: 92+ (92% to pass)
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (20 Questions)
Management of Care (14 Questions)
Q1: An LPN is caring for a client 1 hour after a total hip replacement. The client reports sudden chest
pain and shortness of breath. Which action should the LPN take first?
A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
B. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
C. Notify the registered nurse (RN) immediately [CORRECT]
D. Check the client's oxygen saturation
Rationale: Sudden chest pain and shortness of breath post-hip surgery are classic signs of a pulmonary
embolism (PE), a life-threatening emergency. The LPN must notify the RN or provider immediately as
this is beyond the scope of independent LPN intervention. Immediate RN notification triggers rapid
response, diagnostic confirmation, and emergency treatment (anticoagulation, possible thrombolytics).
Vital signs and oxygen can be initiated after or while notifying.
Q2: A client with a prescription for wrist restraints is actively trying to remove them. Which action by the
LPN demonstrates correct restraint use?
A. Tie the restraint straps to the movable bed rail
B. Apply the restraints every 2 hours for 30 minutes
C. Remove the restraint every 2 hours to assess skin and circulation
D. Secure the restraint with a quick-release knot to the bed frame [CORRECT]
,Rationale: Restraint safety standards require securing restraints with a quick-release knot to the bed
frame (never to a movable side rail, which could cause injury). Restraints are removed at least every 2
hours for range of motion, skin assessment, toileting, and hydration. Option C describes a release
schedule but omits the critical detail of quick-release knot safety, making D the most complete and
correct answer for restraint application.
Q3: Which task is appropriate for the LPN to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a postoperative client's incision for signs of infection
B. Measuring and recording the intake and output of a client with stable heart failure [CORRECT]
C. Teaching a newly diagnosed diabetic client about foot care
D. Evaluating the effectiveness of pain medication for a client with cancer
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine, non-invasive tasks for stable clients with predictable outcomes,
including measuring and recording intake and output. Assessment (A), client teaching (C), and
evaluation of medication effectiveness (D) require nursing judgment and are within the scope of the LPN
or RN, not appropriate for delegation to UAP.
Q4: An LPN receives a telephone prescription from a provider for a new medication. What is the LPN's
first action?
A. Immediately administer the medication to the client
B. Write the prescription in the client's chart and have another nurse read it back
C. Document the prescription only after administering the medication
D. Read back the complete prescription to the provider for verification [CORRECT]
Rationale: The LPN must read back the complete telephone prescription to the provider for verification
before transcribing or administering the medication. This "read-back" protocol prevents transcription
errors and ensures accuracy. The LPN should include the medication name, dose, route, frequency, and
any special instructions during the read-back.
Q5: A client is scheduled for surgery and tells the LPN, "I don't want the surgery anymore. I'm going
home." What is the LPN's best response?
A. "You signed the consent form already, so you must have the surgery."
B. "I'll call the surgeon to come talk to you, but you have the right to refuse treatment." [CORRECT]
C. "If you leave now, your insurance won't cover any of this."
D. "The surgeon knows what's best for you. Let me get your pre-op medications."
,Rationale: Clients have the legal right to refuse treatment at any time, even after signing informed
consent. The LPN must respect the client's autonomy while ensuring the client understands the
consequences of refusal. The appropriate response is to notify the provider and support the client's right
to self-determination without coercion or abandonment.
Q6: Which action by the LPN demonstrates proper understanding of HIPAA regulations?
A. Discussing a client's diagnosis with the client's neighbor who called to check on them
B. Leaving a client's chart open at the nurses' station
C. Providing client information to the client's authorized representative with proper identification
[CORRECT]
D. Faxing client records to an unknown number without verification
Rationale: HIPAA requires that protected health information (PHI) be disclosed only to authorized
individuals with proper verification. The client's authorized representative, with appropriate
identification, may receive information. Discussing PHI with unauthorized persons (A), leaving charts
unsecured (B), or faxing to unverified numbers (D) are all HIPAA violations.
Q7: An LPN witnesses a UAP roughly handling a client with dementia. What is the LPN's first action?
A. Complete an incident report at the end of the shift
B. Immediately intervene to stop the behavior and ensure client safety [CORRECT]
C. Report the UAP to the state board of nursing
D. Wait to see if the behavior happens again before acting
Rationale: Client safety is the priority. The LPN must immediately intervene to stop any abusive or rough
handling, ensure the client is safe, and then report the incident to the charge nurse or supervisor.
Delaying action (A, D) places the client at continued risk. Reporting to the state board (C) may be
appropriate later but is not the first action.
Q8: A client with a living will states they do not want cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). The client
codes. What should the LPN do?
A. Begin CPR immediately regardless of the living will
B. Honor the client's wishes and do not initiate CPR, ensuring the advance directive is documented and
available [CORRECT]
C. Call the family to ask if they want CPR performed
D. Initiate CPR until the provider arrives to make a decision
, Rationale: A valid living will (advance directive) is a legal document that expresses the client's wishes
regarding end-of-life care. The LPN must honor the client's documented wishes and not initiate CPR. The
LPN should ensure the advance directive is in the chart and notify the provider and appropriate
personnel. Family wishes do not override a valid advance directive.
Q9: The LPN is caring for four clients. Which client should the LPN assess first?
A. A client with stable chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) awaiting discharge
B. A client with a new colostomy who needs discharge teaching
C. A client with a blood pressure of 88/52 mm Hg and complaints of dizziness [CORRECT]
D. A client requesting a PRN laxative for constipation
Rationale: Prioritization follows the ABC framework and acute vs. chronic principles. A blood pressure of
88/52 mm Hg with dizziness indicates hypotension and potential shock, requiring immediate assessment
and intervention. This is an acute, potentially life-threatening situation that takes priority over stable
clients (A), teaching (B), or comfort needs (D).
Q10: An LPN is assigned to care for a client with a do-not-resuscitate (DNR) order. The client's family
arrives and demands that CPR be performed if the client codes. What is the LPN's best action?
A. Agree to perform CPR if the family insists
B. Explain that the DNR order reflects the client's wishes and notify the RN or provider to discuss with
the family [CORRECT]
C. Refuse to discuss the DNR with the family
D. Call the hospital ethics committee immediately
Rationale: The DNR order reflects the client's documented wishes and must be honored. The LPN should
explain this to the family in a compassionate manner and involve the RN or provider to facilitate further
discussion. The LPN does not have the authority to override a valid DNR order based on family demands.
Q11: Which task is within the LPN's scope of practice?
A. Initiating a blood transfusion
B. Developing a plan of care for a newly admitted client
C. Administering oral medications to a stable client with predictable outcomes [CORRECT]
D. Performing the initial assessment of a client in the emergency department
Rationale: LPNs can administer oral medications to stable clients with predictable outcomes. Initiating
blood transfusions (A), developing initial plans of care (B), and performing initial assessments in acute
