NURS 180 | Pharmacology | Exam 2 Study Guide 2026 |WCU
1. A patient is prescribed Albuterol (Ventolin) for acute bronchospasm. Which
mechanism of action correctly describes this medication?
A. Activation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle
B. Inhibition of muscarinic receptors in the lungs
C. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors to reduce mucosal edema
D. Blockade of leukotriene receptors to prevent inflammation
Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is a Short-Acting Beta-2 Agonist (SABA) that triggers bronchodilation
by stimulating beta-2 receptors in the lungs.
2. A nurse is teaching a patient about Rifampin for tuberculosis treatment. What
side effect should the nurse emphasize as expected but harmless?
A. Peripheral neuropathy and numbness
B. Tinnitus and hearing loss
C. Visual disturbances and green-red color blindness
D. Orange-red discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears
Answer: D
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes a harmless orange discoloration of body fluids,
which can stain contact lenses and clothing.
,3. A patient with heart failure is receiving Furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte
imbalance is the nurse most concerned about?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, leading to
a high risk of hypokalemia.
4. When administering Vancomycin IV, the patient develops a sudden rash on
the face and neck. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Stop the infusion immediately
B. Slow the infusion rate
C. Administer Epinephrine subcutaneously
D. Document the finding as a normal reaction
Answer: B
Rationale: This describes ‘Red Man Syndrome,’ a rate-related infusion reaction. Slowing
the rate typically resolves the issue, unlike a true anaphylactic reaction.
5. What is the therapeutic serum level for a patient taking Lithium for Bipolar
Disorder?
A. 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L
B. 0.1 to 0.5 mEq/L
C. 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L
D. 3.0 to 5.0 mEq/L
Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic range for Lithium is narrow, typically 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. Levels
above 1.5 are considered toxic.
, 6. A patient is taking Warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test is used to
monitor the effectiveness of this therapy?
A. aPTT
B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum Creatinine
Answer: B
Rationale: PT/INR (Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio) is the standard
monitoring tool for Warfarin efficacy.
7. What is the primary mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril?
A. Blocking the binding of Angiotensin II to its receptors
B. Promoting the excretion of sodium and potassium
C. Inhibiting the release of Renin from the kidneys
D. Preventing the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
Answer: D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors block the Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme, preventing the
production of the potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II.
8. Which adverse effect is a characteristic ‘hallmark’ of ACE inhibitor therapy
that often leads to discontinuation?
A. Dry, persistent cough
B. Hypokalemia
C. Constipation
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: The accumulation of bradykinin caused by ACE inhibitors often results in a
persistent, non-productive dry cough.
1. A patient is prescribed Albuterol (Ventolin) for acute bronchospasm. Which
mechanism of action correctly describes this medication?
A. Activation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle
B. Inhibition of muscarinic receptors in the lungs
C. Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors to reduce mucosal edema
D. Blockade of leukotriene receptors to prevent inflammation
Answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is a Short-Acting Beta-2 Agonist (SABA) that triggers bronchodilation
by stimulating beta-2 receptors in the lungs.
2. A nurse is teaching a patient about Rifampin for tuberculosis treatment. What
side effect should the nurse emphasize as expected but harmless?
A. Peripheral neuropathy and numbness
B. Tinnitus and hearing loss
C. Visual disturbances and green-red color blindness
D. Orange-red discoloration of urine, sweat, and tears
Answer: D
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes a harmless orange discoloration of body fluids,
which can stain contact lenses and clothing.
,3. A patient with heart failure is receiving Furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte
imbalance is the nurse most concerned about?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: C
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, leading to
a high risk of hypokalemia.
4. When administering Vancomycin IV, the patient develops a sudden rash on
the face and neck. What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Stop the infusion immediately
B. Slow the infusion rate
C. Administer Epinephrine subcutaneously
D. Document the finding as a normal reaction
Answer: B
Rationale: This describes ‘Red Man Syndrome,’ a rate-related infusion reaction. Slowing
the rate typically resolves the issue, unlike a true anaphylactic reaction.
5. What is the therapeutic serum level for a patient taking Lithium for Bipolar
Disorder?
A. 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L
B. 0.1 to 0.5 mEq/L
C. 1.5 to 2.5 mEq/L
D. 3.0 to 5.0 mEq/L
Answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic range for Lithium is narrow, typically 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. Levels
above 1.5 are considered toxic.
, 6. A patient is taking Warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test is used to
monitor the effectiveness of this therapy?
A. aPTT
B. PT/INR
C. Platelet count
D. Serum Creatinine
Answer: B
Rationale: PT/INR (Prothrombin Time/International Normalized Ratio) is the standard
monitoring tool for Warfarin efficacy.
7. What is the primary mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril?
A. Blocking the binding of Angiotensin II to its receptors
B. Promoting the excretion of sodium and potassium
C. Inhibiting the release of Renin from the kidneys
D. Preventing the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II
Answer: D
Rationale: ACE inhibitors block the Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme, preventing the
production of the potent vasoconstrictor Angiotensin II.
8. Which adverse effect is a characteristic ‘hallmark’ of ACE inhibitor therapy
that often leads to discontinuation?
A. Dry, persistent cough
B. Hypokalemia
C. Constipation
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: The accumulation of bradykinin caused by ACE inhibitors often results in a
persistent, non-productive dry cough.
