NURS 180 Pharmacology Final Exam 2026 - West Coast University
1. A patient is prescribed Digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Which of the following findings
would most likely indicate Digoxin toxicity?
A. Yellow-green halos around lights
B. Frequent urination
C. Increased appetite
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Signs of Digoxin toxicity include visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos,
blurred vision, as well as bradycardia and anorexia.
2. When administering intravenous Heparin, the nurse should monitor which
laboratory value to adjust the dosage?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Hemoglobin level
Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT is used to monitor Heparin therapy, while PT/INR is used for Warfarin.
,3. A client is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. What is a common, non-
harmful but annoying side effect the nurse should educate the client about?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Dry, persistent cough
C. Constipation
D. Tinnitus
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril are known to cause a dry, hacking cough due to
the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
4. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which
class of antihypertensive medications should be avoided?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers
B. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
C. Thiazide Diuretics
D. Non-selective Beta-Blockers
Answer: D
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers (like Propranolol) can cause bronchoconstriction
by blocking Beta-2 receptors in the lungs.
5. When is the peak effect of Regular Insulin expected after subcutaneous
administration?
A. 30 to 60 minutes
B. 2 to 4 hours
C. 6 to 10 hours
D. 12 to 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Regular insulin is short-acting and typically peaks 2 to 4 hours after
subcutaneous injection.
, 6. Which medication is the specific antidote for a Benzodiazepine overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine Sulfate
Answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil is the competitive antagonist for benzodiazepine receptors.
7. A patient taking Phenytoin (Dilantin) should be instructed by the nurse to
perform which specific health maintenance activity?
A. Daily weight monitoring
B. Low-protein diet
C. Frequent dental checkups and flossing
D. Checking blood glucose twice daily
Answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia; meticulous oral hygiene is necessary.
8. What is the primary mechanism of action of Spironolactone?
A. Inhibiting the sodium-potassium pump in the loop of Henle
B. Blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron
C. Increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular filtrate
D. Blocking alpha-1 receptors in the vasculature
Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts by antagonizing
aldosterone.
1. A patient is prescribed Digoxin 0.125 mg daily. Which of the following findings
would most likely indicate Digoxin toxicity?
A. Yellow-green halos around lights
B. Frequent urination
C. Increased appetite
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Signs of Digoxin toxicity include visual disturbances such as yellow-green halos,
blurred vision, as well as bradycardia and anorexia.
2. When administering intravenous Heparin, the nurse should monitor which
laboratory value to adjust the dosage?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Hemoglobin level
Answer: B
Rationale: aPTT is used to monitor Heparin therapy, while PT/INR is used for Warfarin.
,3. A client is prescribed Lisinopril for hypertension. What is a common, non-
harmful but annoying side effect the nurse should educate the client about?
A. Peripheral edema
B. Dry, persistent cough
C. Constipation
D. Tinnitus
Answer: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril are known to cause a dry, hacking cough due to
the accumulation of bradykinin in the lungs.
4. A patient with a history of asthma is diagnosed with hypertension. Which
class of antihypertensive medications should be avoided?
A. Calcium Channel Blockers
B. Angiotensin II Receptor Blockers
C. Thiazide Diuretics
D. Non-selective Beta-Blockers
Answer: D
Rationale: Non-selective beta-blockers (like Propranolol) can cause bronchoconstriction
by blocking Beta-2 receptors in the lungs.
5. When is the peak effect of Regular Insulin expected after subcutaneous
administration?
A. 30 to 60 minutes
B. 2 to 4 hours
C. 6 to 10 hours
D. 12 to 24 hours
Answer: B
Rationale: Regular insulin is short-acting and typically peaks 2 to 4 hours after
subcutaneous injection.
, 6. Which medication is the specific antidote for a Benzodiazepine overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Naloxone
D. Protamine Sulfate
Answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil is the competitive antagonist for benzodiazepine receptors.
7. A patient taking Phenytoin (Dilantin) should be instructed by the nurse to
perform which specific health maintenance activity?
A. Daily weight monitoring
B. Low-protein diet
C. Frequent dental checkups and flossing
D. Checking blood glucose twice daily
Answer: C
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia; meticulous oral hygiene is necessary.
8. What is the primary mechanism of action of Spironolactone?
A. Inhibiting the sodium-potassium pump in the loop of Henle
B. Blocking aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron
C. Increasing osmotic pressure in the glomerular filtrate
D. Blocking alpha-1 receptors in the vasculature
Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that acts by antagonizing
aldosterone.
