BSN 266 HESI EXAM PACKAGE WITH
SOLUTION, UPDATED 2026/2027,
COMPLETE NURSING COURSE STUDY
RESOURCE 100% GUARANTEED PASS
GRADED A+ NEWEST VERSION
The nurse is interviewing a male client with hypertension. Which additional
medical diagnosis in the client's history presents the greatest risk for developing a
cerebral vascular accident (CVA)?
A. Diabetes mellitus.
B. Hypothyroidism.
C. Parkinson's disease.
D. Recurring pneumonia. - ANSWER A. Diabetes mellitus.
Rationale
According to the National Stroke Association (2013), a history of diabetes mellitus
poses the greatest risk for developing a CVA, 2-4 times more than those who do
not have diabetes mellitus. The reason for this occurrence is related to the excess
glucose circulating throughout the body not being utilized by the cells of the body,
leading to the increased fatty deposits or clots inside the blood vessels in the brain
or neck, eventually causing a stroke.
The nurse is assessing a client who has had a history of Parkinson's disease for the
past 5 years. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?
A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics and grimaces, and constant writhing
movements.
,B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances. -
ANSWER B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the
head.
Rationale
Parkinson's Disease is one of the most common neurologic progressive disorders of
the older client. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head
and hands are common clinical features of Parkinsonism.
A client who is HIV positive asks the nurse, "How will I know when I have
AIDS?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. "Diagnosis of AIDS is made when you have 2 positive ELISA test results."
B. "Diagnosis is made when both the ELISA and the Western Blot tests are
positive."
C. "I can tell that you are afraid of being diagnosed with AIDS. Would you like me
to call your minister?"
D. "AIDS is diagnosed when a specific opportunistic infection is found in an
otherwise healthy individual." - ANSWER D. "AIDS is diagnosed when a
specific opportunistic infection is found in an otherwise healthy individual."
Rationale
AIDS is diagnosed when one of several processes defined by the CDC is present in
an individual who is not otherwise immunosuppressed (PCP, candida,
cryptococcus, cryptosporidiosis, Kaposi's sarcoma, CNS lymphomas) and/or a
CD4+ T cell count of more than 200 (normal count 1,000).
, An adult client is admitted to the hospital burn unit with partial-thickness and full-
thickness burns over 40% of the body surface area. In assessing the potential for
skin regeneration, what should the nurse remember about full-thickness burns?
A. Regenerative function of the skin is absent because the dermal layer has been
destroyed.
B. Tissue regeneration will begin several days following the return of normal
circulation.
C. Debridement of eschar will delay the body's ability to regenerate normal tissue.
D. Normal tissue formation will be preceded by scar formation for the first year. -
ANSWER A. Regenerative function of the skin is absent because the dermal
layer has been destroyed.
Rationale
Full-thickness burns destroy the entire dermal layer. Included in this destruction is
the regenerative tissue. For this reason, tissue regeneration does not occur, and skin
grafting is necessary.
A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is
of greatest importance to this client? Assess the client's
A. pulse rate, both apically and radially.
B. blood pressure, both standing and sitting.
C. Temperature
D. skin color and turgor. - ANSWER C. Temperature
Rationale
It is very important to check the client's temperature. Long-term use of steroids in
COPD clients is effective in suppressing inflammation in their airways, making it
easier for them to breathe, but at the same time suppresses the immune system,
placing the client at risk for infection.
, A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed
sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse
assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause
of the bradycardia?
A. Propanolol (Inderal).
B. Captopril (Capoten).
C. Furosemide (Lasix).
D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - ANSWER A. Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale
Inderal is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and
decreased contractility.
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with
Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse describe
when teaching the client about hypoglycemia?
A. Sweating, trembling, tachycardia.
B. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia.
C. Nausea, vomiting, anorexia.
D. Fruity breath, tachypnea, chest pain. - ANSWER A. Sweating, trembling,
tachycardia.
Rationale
Sweating, dizziness, and trembling are signs of hypoglycemic reactions related to
the release of epinephrine as a compensatory response to the low blood sugar.
Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-
menopausal female client?
SOLUTION, UPDATED 2026/2027,
COMPLETE NURSING COURSE STUDY
RESOURCE 100% GUARANTEED PASS
GRADED A+ NEWEST VERSION
The nurse is interviewing a male client with hypertension. Which additional
medical diagnosis in the client's history presents the greatest risk for developing a
cerebral vascular accident (CVA)?
A. Diabetes mellitus.
B. Hypothyroidism.
C. Parkinson's disease.
D. Recurring pneumonia. - ANSWER A. Diabetes mellitus.
Rationale
According to the National Stroke Association (2013), a history of diabetes mellitus
poses the greatest risk for developing a CVA, 2-4 times more than those who do
not have diabetes mellitus. The reason for this occurrence is related to the excess
glucose circulating throughout the body not being utilized by the cells of the body,
leading to the increased fatty deposits or clots inside the blood vessels in the brain
or neck, eventually causing a stroke.
The nurse is assessing a client who has had a history of Parkinson's disease for the
past 5 years. What symptoms would this client most likely exhibit?
A. Loss of short-term memory, facial tics and grimaces, and constant writhing
movements.
,B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head.
C. Extreme muscular weakness, easy fatigability, and ptosis.
D. Numbness of the extremities, loss of balance, and visual disturbances. -
ANSWER B. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the
head.
Rationale
Parkinson's Disease is one of the most common neurologic progressive disorders of
the older client. Shuffling gait, masklike facial expression, and tremors of the head
and hands are common clinical features of Parkinsonism.
A client who is HIV positive asks the nurse, "How will I know when I have
AIDS?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. "Diagnosis of AIDS is made when you have 2 positive ELISA test results."
B. "Diagnosis is made when both the ELISA and the Western Blot tests are
positive."
C. "I can tell that you are afraid of being diagnosed with AIDS. Would you like me
to call your minister?"
D. "AIDS is diagnosed when a specific opportunistic infection is found in an
otherwise healthy individual." - ANSWER D. "AIDS is diagnosed when a
specific opportunistic infection is found in an otherwise healthy individual."
Rationale
AIDS is diagnosed when one of several processes defined by the CDC is present in
an individual who is not otherwise immunosuppressed (PCP, candida,
cryptococcus, cryptosporidiosis, Kaposi's sarcoma, CNS lymphomas) and/or a
CD4+ T cell count of more than 200 (normal count 1,000).
, An adult client is admitted to the hospital burn unit with partial-thickness and full-
thickness burns over 40% of the body surface area. In assessing the potential for
skin regeneration, what should the nurse remember about full-thickness burns?
A. Regenerative function of the skin is absent because the dermal layer has been
destroyed.
B. Tissue regeneration will begin several days following the return of normal
circulation.
C. Debridement of eschar will delay the body's ability to regenerate normal tissue.
D. Normal tissue formation will be preceded by scar formation for the first year. -
ANSWER A. Regenerative function of the skin is absent because the dermal
layer has been destroyed.
Rationale
Full-thickness burns destroy the entire dermal layer. Included in this destruction is
the regenerative tissue. For this reason, tissue regeneration does not occur, and skin
grafting is necessary.
A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD). When making a home visit, which nursing function is
of greatest importance to this client? Assess the client's
A. pulse rate, both apically and radially.
B. blood pressure, both standing and sitting.
C. Temperature
D. skin color and turgor. - ANSWER C. Temperature
Rationale
It is very important to check the client's temperature. Long-term use of steroids in
COPD clients is effective in suppressing inflammation in their airways, making it
easier for them to breathe, but at the same time suppresses the immune system,
placing the client at risk for infection.
, A client with heart disease is on a continuous telemetry monitor and has developed
sinus bradycardia. In determining the possible cause of the bradycardia, the nurse
assesses the client's medication record. Which medication is most likely the cause
of the bradycardia?
A. Propanolol (Inderal).
B. Captopril (Capoten).
C. Furosemide (Lasix).
D. Dobutamine (Dobutrex). - ANSWER A. Propanolol (Inderal).
Rationale
Inderal is a beta-adrenergic blocking agent, which causes decreased heart rate and
decreased contractility.
The nurse is preparing a teaching plan for a client who is newly diagnosed with
Type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse describe
when teaching the client about hypoglycemia?
A. Sweating, trembling, tachycardia.
B. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia.
C. Nausea, vomiting, anorexia.
D. Fruity breath, tachypnea, chest pain. - ANSWER A. Sweating, trembling,
tachycardia.
Rationale
Sweating, dizziness, and trembling are signs of hypoglycemic reactions related to
the release of epinephrine as a compensatory response to the low blood sugar.
Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-
menopausal female client?
