NSG 432 Maternal-Newborn Nursing Final Exam: (Latest 2026/2027 Update)
Comprehensive Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing
Program
Subject: Maternal-Newborn Nursing / OB (NSG 432 Final Exam) – High-Risk Pregnancy, Intrapartum,
Newborn Care, Reproductive Health
Source: Final Exam Blueprint – Comprehensive Review Including Antepartum Testing, Diabetes,
Hypertensive Disorders, Preterm Labor, Postpartum Complications
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale – 100% Verified Answers
Verified: Latest 2026/2027 Update | Grade A Guaranteed
1: A 24-year-old woman with BMI 17.5, cocaine use history, occasional alcohol, BP 108/70, family
history of diabetes/cancer and sister with neural tube defect. Which characteristics place her in a
high-risk category?
A. Blood pressure, age, and BMI
B. Drug/alcohol use, age, and family history
C. Family history, blood pressure, and BMI
D. Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse
Correct Answer: D. Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse
1. Family history of NTD, low BMI (17.5 indicates undernutrition), and substance abuse are all
high-risk factors.
2. BP is normal; age 24 is not high risk.
3. Low BMI may indicate poor nutritional status, which increases risk for preterm birth and low
birth weight.
2: A 39-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks, smokes one pack/day, irregular menses. What diagnostic
technique could be used at this time?
A. Ultrasound examination
B. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
C. Amniocentesis
D. Nonstress test (NST)
Correct Answer: A. Ultrasound examination
1. Ultrasound confirms pregnancy and determines gestational age at 8 weeks.
2. MSAFP is done at 16-18 weeks; amniocentesis after 14 weeks; NST in third trimester.
3. Early ultrasound establishes accurate dating, especially with irregular cycles.
,3: A 30-week pregnant woman who smoked throughout pregnancy has fundal height suggesting
IUGR. Besides ultrasound, what other tool would confirm diagnosis?
A. Doppler blood flow analysis
B. Contraction stress test (CST)
C. Amniocentesis
D. Daily fetal movement counts
Correct Answer: A. Doppler blood flow analysis
1. Doppler flow studies assess blood flow in umbilical artery; abnormal flow suggests placental
insufficiency.
2. CST is contraindicated in preterm; amniocentesis not for IUGR; kick counts are for
monitoring, not diagnosis.
3. IUGR from smoking is often due to vascular impairment.
4: A 41-week multigravida had a nonreactive NST. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed
information?
A. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
B. Biophysical profile (BPP)
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
D. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
Correct Answer: B. Biophysical profile (BPP)
1. BPP assesses five variables: NST, breathing, movement, tone, amniotic fluid volume.
2. BPP is noninvasive and evaluates acute and chronic fetal well-being.
3. MSAFP is done earlier; PUBS is invasive and not first-line.
5: A 40-year-old woman at 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to
suggest?
A. Biophysical profile (BPP)
B. Amniocentesis
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: D. Transvaginal ultrasound
1. Transvaginal ultrasound provides detailed biophysical assessment at 10 weeks.
2. BPP is third trimester; amniocentesis after 14 weeks; MSAFP at 15-22 weeks.
3. Early ultrasound confirms viability, dating, and number of fetuses.
,6: A patient asks about the grade of her placenta because she is overdue. Best response by the
nurse?
A. "Your placenta changes as pregnancy progresses; grade indicates calcium deposits. More calcium =
higher grade, less blood/oxygen to baby."
B. "Your placenta isn't working properly; your baby is in danger."
C. "We will need to perform amniocentesis to detect placental damage."
D. "Don't worry; everything is fine."
Correct Answer: A. "Your placenta changes as pregnancy progresses; grade indicates calcium deposits.
More calcium = higher grade, less blood/oxygen to baby."
1. Placental grading (0-III) reflects maturity; Grade III after 40 weeks shows calcification.
2. Higher grade may indicate reduced function but is not an emergency alone.
3. Provide factual, non-alarming education.
7: A woman undergoing nipple-stimulated CST has contractions every 3 minutes, FHR baseline 120
without decelerations. Interpretation?
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Satisfactory
D. Unsatisfactory
Correct Answer: A. Negative
1. Negative CST = no late decelerations with adequate contractions (3 in 10 min).
2. Positive CST = persistent late decelerations.
3. Negative CST is reassuring.
8: When helping mothers assess daily fetal movement counts, nurses should be aware that:
A. Alcohol or cigarettes stimulate fetal activity.
B. Kick counts should be taken every 30 minutes.
C. The fetal alarm signal should go off when movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
D. Obese mothers can assess movement as well as average-size women.
Correct Answer: C. The fetal alarm signal should go off when movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
1. No movement in 12 hours warrants investigation (possible fetal compromise).
2. Alcohol/smoke reduce fetal movement; kick counts done 2-3 times daily for 60 min each.
3. Obese women have more difficulty perceiving movement.
, 9: Comparing abdominal and transvaginal ultrasound, nurses should explain that:
A. Both require full bladder.
B. Abdominal is more useful in first trimester.
C. Transvaginal can be painful.
D. Transvaginal allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
Correct Answer: D. Transvaginal allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
1. Transvaginal ultrasound gives higher resolution of pelvic structures and earlier pregnancy
diagnosis.
2. Abdominal requires full bladder; transvaginal requires empty bladder.
3. Transvaginal is more useful in first trimester; not typically painful.
10: In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
A. Amniotic fluid volume
B. Location of gestational sacs
C. Placental location and maturity
D. Cervical length
Correct Answer: B. Location of gestational sacs
1. First trimester ultrasound assesses number, size, location of gestational sacs, fetal cardiac
activity, and dating.
2. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed later; placental maturity not until second/third trimester.
3. Cervical length is typically assessed in second trimester.
11: Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP):
A. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death
B. Is a compilation of maternal health risk factors
C. Consists of Doppler and amniotic fluid index
D. Involves invasive ultrasound
Correct Answer: A. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death
1. Abnormal BPP (≤4) indicates fetal compromise and may prompt delivery.
2. BPP evaluates fetal health, not maternal risks; it is noninvasive.
3. Components: NST, breathing, movement, tone, AFV.
Comprehensive Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) – Nursing
Program
Subject: Maternal-Newborn Nursing / OB (NSG 432 Final Exam) – High-Risk Pregnancy, Intrapartum,
Newborn Care, Reproductive Health
Source: Final Exam Blueprint – Comprehensive Review Including Antepartum Testing, Diabetes,
Hypertensive Disorders, Preterm Labor, Postpartum Complications
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale – 100% Verified Answers
Verified: Latest 2026/2027 Update | Grade A Guaranteed
1: A 24-year-old woman with BMI 17.5, cocaine use history, occasional alcohol, BP 108/70, family
history of diabetes/cancer and sister with neural tube defect. Which characteristics place her in a
high-risk category?
A. Blood pressure, age, and BMI
B. Drug/alcohol use, age, and family history
C. Family history, blood pressure, and BMI
D. Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse
Correct Answer: D. Family history, BMI, and drug/alcohol abuse
1. Family history of NTD, low BMI (17.5 indicates undernutrition), and substance abuse are all
high-risk factors.
2. BP is normal; age 24 is not high risk.
3. Low BMI may indicate poor nutritional status, which increases risk for preterm birth and low
birth weight.
2: A 39-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks, smokes one pack/day, irregular menses. What diagnostic
technique could be used at this time?
A. Ultrasound examination
B. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
C. Amniocentesis
D. Nonstress test (NST)
Correct Answer: A. Ultrasound examination
1. Ultrasound confirms pregnancy and determines gestational age at 8 weeks.
2. MSAFP is done at 16-18 weeks; amniocentesis after 14 weeks; NST in third trimester.
3. Early ultrasound establishes accurate dating, especially with irregular cycles.
,3: A 30-week pregnant woman who smoked throughout pregnancy has fundal height suggesting
IUGR. Besides ultrasound, what other tool would confirm diagnosis?
A. Doppler blood flow analysis
B. Contraction stress test (CST)
C. Amniocentesis
D. Daily fetal movement counts
Correct Answer: A. Doppler blood flow analysis
1. Doppler flow studies assess blood flow in umbilical artery; abnormal flow suggests placental
insufficiency.
2. CST is contraindicated in preterm; amniocentesis not for IUGR; kick counts are for
monitoring, not diagnosis.
3. IUGR from smoking is often due to vascular impairment.
4: A 41-week multigravida had a nonreactive NST. Which diagnostic tool would yield more detailed
information?
A. Ultrasound for fetal anomalies
B. Biophysical profile (BPP)
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
D. Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS)
Correct Answer: B. Biophysical profile (BPP)
1. BPP assesses five variables: NST, breathing, movement, tone, amniotic fluid volume.
2. BPP is noninvasive and evaluates acute and chronic fetal well-being.
3. MSAFP is done earlier; PUBS is invasive and not first-line.
5: A 40-year-old woman at 10 weeks pregnant. Which diagnostic tool would be appropriate to
suggest?
A. Biophysical profile (BPP)
B. Amniocentesis
C. Maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening
D. Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: D. Transvaginal ultrasound
1. Transvaginal ultrasound provides detailed biophysical assessment at 10 weeks.
2. BPP is third trimester; amniocentesis after 14 weeks; MSAFP at 15-22 weeks.
3. Early ultrasound confirms viability, dating, and number of fetuses.
,6: A patient asks about the grade of her placenta because she is overdue. Best response by the
nurse?
A. "Your placenta changes as pregnancy progresses; grade indicates calcium deposits. More calcium =
higher grade, less blood/oxygen to baby."
B. "Your placenta isn't working properly; your baby is in danger."
C. "We will need to perform amniocentesis to detect placental damage."
D. "Don't worry; everything is fine."
Correct Answer: A. "Your placenta changes as pregnancy progresses; grade indicates calcium deposits.
More calcium = higher grade, less blood/oxygen to baby."
1. Placental grading (0-III) reflects maturity; Grade III after 40 weeks shows calcification.
2. Higher grade may indicate reduced function but is not an emergency alone.
3. Provide factual, non-alarming education.
7: A woman undergoing nipple-stimulated CST has contractions every 3 minutes, FHR baseline 120
without decelerations. Interpretation?
A. Negative
B. Positive
C. Satisfactory
D. Unsatisfactory
Correct Answer: A. Negative
1. Negative CST = no late decelerations with adequate contractions (3 in 10 min).
2. Positive CST = persistent late decelerations.
3. Negative CST is reassuring.
8: When helping mothers assess daily fetal movement counts, nurses should be aware that:
A. Alcohol or cigarettes stimulate fetal activity.
B. Kick counts should be taken every 30 minutes.
C. The fetal alarm signal should go off when movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
D. Obese mothers can assess movement as well as average-size women.
Correct Answer: C. The fetal alarm signal should go off when movements stop entirely for 12 hours.
1. No movement in 12 hours warrants investigation (possible fetal compromise).
2. Alcohol/smoke reduce fetal movement; kick counts done 2-3 times daily for 60 min each.
3. Obese women have more difficulty perceiving movement.
, 9: Comparing abdominal and transvaginal ultrasound, nurses should explain that:
A. Both require full bladder.
B. Abdominal is more useful in first trimester.
C. Transvaginal can be painful.
D. Transvaginal allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
Correct Answer: D. Transvaginal allows pelvic anatomy to be evaluated in greater detail.
1. Transvaginal ultrasound gives higher resolution of pelvic structures and earlier pregnancy
diagnosis.
2. Abdominal requires full bladder; transvaginal requires empty bladder.
3. Transvaginal is more useful in first trimester; not typically painful.
10: In the first trimester, ultrasonography can be used to gain information on:
A. Amniotic fluid volume
B. Location of gestational sacs
C. Placental location and maturity
D. Cervical length
Correct Answer: B. Location of gestational sacs
1. First trimester ultrasound assesses number, size, location of gestational sacs, fetal cardiac
activity, and dating.
2. Amniotic fluid volume is assessed later; placental maturity not until second/third trimester.
3. Cervical length is typically assessed in second trimester.
11: Nurses should be aware that the biophysical profile (BPP):
A. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death
B. Is a compilation of maternal health risk factors
C. Consists of Doppler and amniotic fluid index
D. Involves invasive ultrasound
Correct Answer: A. Is an accurate indicator of impending fetal death
1. Abnormal BPP (≤4) indicates fetal compromise and may prompt delivery.
2. BPP evaluates fetal health, not maternal risks; it is noninvasive.
3. Components: NST, breathing, movement, tone, AFV.
