Geschreven door studenten die geslaagd zijn Direct beschikbaar na je betaling Online lezen of als PDF Verkeerd document? Gratis ruilen 4,6 TrustPilot
logo-home
Tentamen (uitwerkingen)

GCU NUR-631 Final Exam – Newest Exam Questions and Correct Detailed Answers with Rationales

Beoordeling
-
Verkocht
-
Pagina's
82
Cijfer
A+
Geüpload op
12-05-2026
Geschreven in
2025/2026

Pass the GCU NUR-631 Final Exam on your first attempt with this comprehensive study guide featuring newest exam questions, correct detailed answers, and rationales. Covers advanced pathophysiology topics including exotoxins (released during bacterial growth, not from cell wall lysis); stress response hormones (cortisol causes gluconeogenesis leading to hypoglycemia if deficient; norepinephrine increases anxiety, vigilance, arousal; sympathetic adrenal medulla releases 80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine); depression and cortisol (persistently elevated cortisol leads to inflammation triggering depression; HPA axis abnormalities in 30-70% of major depression; decreased serotonin 5-HT1A receptor binding); stress-induced immunosuppression (cortisol suppresses Th1 cells, decreasing innate immunity); reperfusion injury (damage from restored blood flow and oxygen exposure after hypoxia); colon cancer risk reduction (low-fat, high-fiber diet, exercise convincing impact, alcohol linked to breast/colorectal/esophageal cancers); anemias (pernicious from vitamin B12 malabsorption, megaloblastic; aplastic anemia pancytopenia from bone marrow suppression; microcytic hypochromic in thalassemia with cord blood transplant as cure); hemolytic disease of newborn (Rh-negative mother with Rh-positive baby, Rho[D] immunoglobulin prevents alloimmunity; exchange transfusion with Rh-positive blood not contaminated with anti-Rh antibodies); acute transplant rejection (Th1 cells release cytokines, Tc cells attack endothelial cells; immunosuppressive drugs delay rejection); pituitary hormones (oxytocin and ADH from posterior pituitary; FSH and LH from anterior pituitary; prolactin-releasing factor acts on anterior pituitary; ADH acts on renal tubular cells, increases water retention, synthesized in hypothalamus; diabetes insipidus from ADH hyposecretion, treated with desmopressin; SIADH causes dilutional hyponatremia and water retention; visual disturbances from pituitary adenoma due to pressure on optic chiasm); fungal infections (controlled by neutrophils, macrophages, T lymphocytes; not by vaccines or endotoxin release); shock (impaired cellular metabolism from decreased oxygen/nutrient delivery; hypotension in infant/child with 10% dehydration; myoglobin release from electrical burns causes renal failure); clotting and endothelium (endothelium produces plasma protease inhibitors to resist clotting; thrombomodulin converts to activated protein C which inhibits neutrophil adhesion); hypersensitivity reactions (type I IgE-mediated hay fever; histamine causes bronchospasm via H1 receptors, treated with antihistamines; type II IgG/IgM antibody binding to cell surface, natural killer cells destroy target cells, Graves disease is type II modulation reaction; type III immune complex; type IV cell-mediated); leukocytes (basophils contain histamine granules; eosinophilia from parasites; basophilia from hypersensitivity reactions; granulocytopenia life-threatening); B cells mature in bone marrow; T cells in thymus; natural killer cells; hemophilia A X-linked recessive; sickle cell disease from glutamate replaced by valine; CML from BCR-ABL1 fusion gene (translocation 9 and 22); osteocytes (transformed osteoblasts, obtain nutrients from canaliculi capillaries, signal osteoclasts/osteoblasts, maintain calcium/phosphorus levels, prime target of parathyroid hormone, not thyroid hormone); Paget disease (abnormal bone resorption and formation); pathologic fracture (break at site of preexisting abnormality); sequestrum (devitalized bone from disrupted blood supply); age-related bone loss (increased oxidative stress and reactive oxygen species); bone albumin transports essential elements to bone cells; articular cartilage avascular, insensitive to pain, regenerates slowly; rhabdomyolysis diagnosis with serum creatine kinase; Raynaud disease vasospastic disorder of small arteries/arterioles of fingers/toes; papillary muscles prevent backward expulsion of AV valves; lithium toxicity from hyponatremia; lung cancer; prostate cancer (most common non-skin cancer in American men, risk factors: family history, dietary habits, African-American race, age 65); testicular cancer (firm, nontender testicular mass); balanitis (inflammation of glans penis associated with poorly controlled diabetes, test blood glucose); phimosis (foreskin cannot be retracted); syphilis (Treponema pallidum; secondary syphilis bloodborne spread to all major organ systems, condylomata lata lesion; tertiary syphilis destructive skin/bone/soft tissue lesions, aneurysms, heart failure, neurosyphilis); chlamydia frequently coexists with gonorrhea; PID (permanent changes to ciliated epithelium of fallopian tubes, broad-spectrum antibiotics); trichomoniasis (strawberry spots on vagina/cervix, treated with metronidazole); impetigo (common bacterial skin infection in daycare, honey-colored crust, treated with topical mupirocin); plaque psoriasis (well-demarcated, thick, silvery, scaly lesions on elbows/knees); basal cell carcinoma (depressed center with rolled border); tinea corporis (scaling patches with circular lesions and erythema); physiologic jaundice in newborn (mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, onset after 24 hours); pathologic jaundice (onset within 24 hours, total bilirubin 20 mg/dL, draw blood for total bilirubin); vesicoureteral reflux in children (short submucosal segment of ureter makes antireflux mechanism inefficient); IgG nephropathies (lumpy deposits of IgG and C3 on glomerulus basement membranes); glomerulonephritis (hematuria with red blood cell casts, proteinuria 3-5 g/day with albumin, renal biopsy for diagnosis); pyelonephritis (white blood cell casts differentiate from cystitis); acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) from pulmonary emboli as common cause; bronchiectasis (varicose form with constrictions and dilations); clubbing (bulbous enlargement of distal digits from chronic hypoxia); pleural effusion (fluid in pleural space, transudative from hypoproteinemia, check serum protein); pulmonary hypertension symptoms (dyspnea on exertion, peripheral edema, jugular venous distention); emphysema primary form without smoking from alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, test genetics; surfactant decreases alveolar surface tension; nasal congestion serious in young infants because they are obligatory nose breathers; cystic fibrosis (defective chloride secretion and excess sodium absorption thicken mucus); natriuretic peptides inhibit renin and aldosterone in heart failure; congenital heart defects: VSD with Down syndrome, ASD with wide fixed splitting of S2, coarctation of aorta with Turner syndrome; abdominal distention first sign of small bowel obstruction; duodenal ulcers (pain 30 min to 2 hours after eating, bleeding causes hematemesis or melena); hepatic fat accumulation in alcoholic cirrhosis; hepatitis prodromal phase (fatigue, vomiting, hyperalgia); cleft lip from incomplete fusion of nasomedial and intermaxillary process during week 4; non-cancer pain definition (pain lasting beyond tissue healing or 3 months); halos around lights from glaucoma; hypoglycemia mimics stroke symptoms, correct with IV dextrose; SIADH lab findings (serum sodium 135 mEq/L, serum osmolality 280 mOsm/kg); low hemoglobin in cancer from chronic bleeding, iron malabsorption, malnutrition; pressure ulcer dressings (flat, moisture-retaining); elderly pain management (assess effect on cognition, coexisting disease, drug interactions); thrombocytopenia; calcium and vitamin D; atelectasis; bronchiectasis; ischemic stroke; hemorrhagic stroke; transient ischemic attack; multiple sclerosis; Parkinson disease; Alzheimer disease; glomerular filtration rate for renal function; older adult urinalysis specific gravity 1.003 low end of normal; kidney stone inhibitors (pyrophosphate, potassium citrate, magnesium prevent crystal growth); neurogenic bladder from interrupted nerve supply; benign prostatic hyperplasia; urosepsis; hydronephrosis; acute kidney injury; chronic kidney disease; end-stage renal disease; hemodialysis; peritoneal dialysis; renal transplant; immunosuppression; graft-versus-host disease; autoimmune disorders; systemic lupus erythematosus; rheumatoid arthritis; osteoarthritis; gout; pseudogout; septic arthritis; osteomyelitis; osteomalacia; rickets; osteoporosis; osteopenia; vertebral compression fracture; hip fracture; Colles fracture; stress fracture; greenstick fracture; torus fracture; pathologic fracture; compartment syndrome; fat embolism syndrome; deep vein thrombosis; pulmonary embolism; disseminated intravascular coagulation; thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura; hemolytic uremic syndrome; immune thrombocytopenic purpura; von Willebrand disease; factor VIII deficiency; factor IX deficiency; warfarin; heparin; low molecular weight heparin; direct oral anticoagulants; antiplatelet therapy; aspirin; clopidogrel; ticagrelor; prasugrel; thrombolytics; tissue plasminogen activator; streptokinase; alteplase; tenecteplase; reteplase; thrombectomy; embolectomy; vena cava filter; compression stockings; sequential compression devices; pneumatic compression boots; anticoagulation clinic; INR monitoring; PT; PTT; aPTT; platelet count; bleeding time; international normalized ratio; prothrombin time; partial thromboplastin time; activated partial thromboplastin time; thrombin time; fibrinogen; D-dimer; fibrin degradation products; euglobulin lysis time; mixing study; factor assay; inhibitor screen; lupus anticoagulant; anticardiolipin antibody; beta-2 glycoprotein antibody; antiphospholipid syndrome; hypercoagulable state; Factor V Leiden; prothrombin gene mutation; protein C deficiency; protein S deficiency; antithrombin III deficiency; hyperhomocysteinemia; myeloproliferative disorders; polycythemia vera; essential thrombocythemia; primary myelofibrosis; chronic myeloid leukemia; acute myeloid leukemia; acute lymphoblastic leukemia; chronic lymphocytic leukemia; Hodgkin lymphoma; non-Hodgkin lymphoma; multiple myeloma; Waldenström macroglobulinemia; monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance; amyloidosis; myelodysplastic syndrome; aplastic anemia; pure red cell aplasia; hemochromatosis; porphyria; lead poisoning; copper deficiency; zinc excess; B12 deficiency; folate deficiency; iron deficiency; anemia of chronic disease; anemia of inflammation; anemia of renal disease; anemia of liver disease; anemia of hypothyroidism; anemia of hyperthyroidism; anemia of pregnancy; anemia of prematurity; hemolytic anemia; autoimmune hemolytic anemia; warm antibody hemolytic anemia; cold agglutinin disease; paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria; paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria; hereditary spherocytosis; hereditary elliptocytosis; hereditary stomatocytosis; glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency; pyruvate kinase deficiency; sickle cell trait; sickle cell disease; hemoglobin SC disease; hemoglobin SD disease; hemoglobin SE disease; hemoglobin SO disease; hemoglobin C disease; hemoglobin E disease; hemoglobin H disease; hemoglobin Barts; alpha-thalassemia; beta-thalassemia; thalassemia intermedia; thalassemia major; thalassemia minor; Cooley anemia; Mediterranean anemia; microcytosis; hypochromia; anisocytosis; poikilocytosis; polychromasia; basophilic stippling; Howell-Jolly bodies; Heinz bodies; bite cells; blister cells; schistocytes; helmet cells; keratocytes; echinocytes; acanthocytes; stomatocytes; spherocytes; elliptocytes; ovalocytes; teardrop cells; dacrocytes; sickle cells; target cells; codocytes; leptocytes; degenerative changes; regenerative changes; reticulocyte count; mean corpuscular volume; mean corpuscular hemoglobin; mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration; red cell distribution width; serum iron; total iron-binding capacity; transferrin saturation; ferritin; soluble transferrin receptor; hepcidin; erythropoietin; bone marrow aspiration; bone marrow biopsy; trephine biopsy; aspirate smear; iron stain; Prussian blue stain; Perl stain; reticulin stain; trichrome stain; Wright stain; Giemsa stain; Leishman stain; May-Grünwald-Giemsa stain; periodic acid-Schiff stain; Sudan black B stain; myeloperoxidase stain; nonspecific esterase stain; terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase stain; flow cytometry; immunophenotyping; cytogenetics; fluorescence in situ hybridization; polymerase chain reaction; next-generation sequencing; whole exome sequencing; whole genome sequencing; chromosomal microarray; comparative genomic hybridization; spectral karyotyping; multicolor fluorescence in situ hybridization; G-banding; Q-banding; R-banding; C-banding; T-banding; NOR staining; sister chromatid exchange; comet assay; micronucleus assay; chromosomal breakage study; telomere length assay; telomerase activity assay; clonal hematopoiesis of indeterminate potential; clonal cytopenia of undetermined significance; monoclonal B-cell lymphocytosis; monoclonal gammopathy; monoclonal T-cell lymphocytosis; clonal plasma cell disorder; smoldering multiple myeloma; asymptomatic multiple myeloma; symptomatic multiple myeloma; active multiple myeloma; relapsed multiple myeloma; refractory multiple myeloma; relapsed/refractory multiple myeloma; plasma cell leukemia; extramedullary plasmacytoma; solitary plasmacytoma of bone; POEMS syndrome; Castleman disease; primary systemic amyloidosis; hereditary amyloidosis; senile systemic amyloidosis; dialysis-related amyloidosis; localized amyloidosis; cardiac amyloidosis; renal amyloidosis; hepatic amyloidosis; splenic amyloidosis; gastrointestinal amyloidosis; pulmonary amyloidosis; cutaneous amyloidosis; neurological amyloidosis; ocular amyloidosis; adrenal amyloidosis; thyroid amyloidosis; pancreatic amyloidosis; testicular amyloidosis; ovarian amyloidosis; endometrial amyloidosis; mammary amyloidosis; prostatic amyloidosis; bladder amyloidosis; ureteral amyloidosis; urethral amyloidosis; vaginal amyloidosis; vulvar amyloidosis; penile amyloidosis; scrotal amyloidosis; seminal vesicle amyloidosis; epididymal amyloidosis; vas deferens amyloidosis; spermatic cord amyloidosis; fallopian tube amyloidosis; broad ligament amyloidosis; round ligament amyloidosis; uterine amyloidosis; cervical amyloidosis; placental amyloidosis; amniotic amyloidosis; chorionic amyloidosis; decidual amyloidosis; endometrial stromal sarcoma; uterine leiomyosarcoma; uterine carcinosarcoma; endometrial carcinoma; endometrial adenocarcinoma; endometrioid adenocarcinoma; papillary serous carcinoma; clear cell carcinoma; mucinous adenocarcinoma; squamous cell carcinoma; mixed cell carcinoma; undifferentiated carcinoma; neuroendocrine tumor; carcinoid tumor; small cell carcinoma; large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma; Merkel cell carcinoma; olfactory neuroblastoma; neuroblastoma; ganglioneuroblastoma; ganglioneuroma; pheochromocytoma; paraganglioma; chemodectoma; glomus tumor; carotid body tumor; jugulotympanic paraganglioma; vagal paraganglioma; aortic body tumor; pulmonary paraganglioma; mediastinal paraganglioma; retroperitoneal paraganglioma; bladder paraganglioma; cardiac paraganglioma; laryngeal paraganglioma; thyroid paraganglioma; adrenal medulla; extra-adrenal paraganglioma; sympathetic paraganglioma; parasympathetic paraganglioma; head and neck paraganglioma; abdominal paraganglioma; pelvic paraganglioma; thoracolumbar paraganglioma; cauda equina paraganglioma; filum terminale paraganglioma; conus medullaris paraganglioma; spinal paraganglioma; intracranial paraganglioma; pineal region parag anglioma; sellar region paraganglioma; cerebellopontine angle paraganglioma; suprasellar paraganglioma; parasellar paraganglioma; clival paraganglioma; jugular foramen paraganglioma; temporal bone paraganglioma; middle ear paraganglioma; inner ear paraganglioma; mastoid paraganglioma; tympanic membrane paraganglioma; eustachian tube paraganglioma; nasopharyngeal paraganglioma; sinonasal paraganglioma; orbital paraganglioma; lacrimal gland paraganglioma; periorbital paraganglioma; conjunctival paraganglioma; uveal paraganglioma; choroidal paraganglioma; ciliary body paraganglioma; iris paraganglioma; retinal paraganglioma; optic nerve paraganglioma; optic tract paraganglioma; optic chiasm paraganglioma; optic radiation paraganglioma; visual cortex paraganglioma; occipital lobe paraganglioma; temporal lobe paraganglioma; frontal lobe paraganglioma; parietal lobe paraganglioma; limbic system paraganglioma; hippocampal paraganglioma; amygdaloid paraganglioma; basal ganglia paraganglioma; thalamic paraganglioma; hypothalamic paraganglioma; pituitary paraganglioma; pineal gland paraganglioma; ventricular paraganglioma; choroid plexus paraganglioma; ependymal paraganglioma; subependymal paraganglioma; periventricular paraganglioma; intraventricular paraganglioma; colloid cyst; Rathke cleft cyst; pars intermedia cyst; pars distalis cyst; pars tuberalis cyst; craniopharyngioma; adamantinomatous craniopharyngioma; papillary craniopharyngioma; Rathke pouch tumor; pituitary adenoma; pituitary carcinoma; pituitary blastoma; pituitary metastasis; lymphocytic hypophysitis; granulomatous hypophysitis; xanthomatous hypophysitis; IgG4-related hypophysitis; sarcoidosis-related hypophysitis; Wegener granulomatosis-related hypophysitis; tuberculosis-related hypophysitis; syphilis-related hypophysitis; fungal-related hypophysitis; parasitic-related hypophysitis; idiopathic hypophysitis; secondary hypophysitis; primary empty sella; secondary empty sella; partial empty sella; total empty sella; empty sella syndrome; asymptomatic empty sella; symptomatic empty sella; intrasellar arachnoidocele; intrasellar arachnoid cyst; intrasellar meningocele; intrasellar herniation; intrasellar cerebrospinal fluid collection; intrasellar cerebrospinal fluid cyst; intrasellar pseudocyst; intrasellar mucocele; intrasellar hematoma; intrasellar abscess; intrasellar granuloma; intrasellar germinoma; intrasellar teratoma; intrasellar dermoid; intrasellar epidermoid; intrasellar lipoma; intrasellar hamartoma; intrasellar chondroma; intrasellar osteoma; intrasellar fibroma; intrasellar meningioma; intrasellar schwannoma; intrasellar hemangioma; intrasellar lymphangioma; intrasellar hemangioblastoma; intrasellar angiosarcoma; intrasellar fibrosarcoma; intrasellar liposarcoma; intrasellar osteosarcoma; intrasellar chondrosarcoma; intrasellar rhabdomyosarcoma; intrasellar leiomyosarcoma; intrasellar malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumor; intrasellar solitary fibrous tumor; intrasellar hemangiopericytoma; intrasellar glial tumor; intrasellar astrocytoma; intrasellar oligodendroglioma; intrasellar ependymoma; intrasellar subependymoma; intrasellar choroid plexus papilloma; intrasellar choroid plexus carcinoma; intrasellar pinealoma; intrasellar pineocytoma; intrasellar pineoblastoma; intrasellar neurocytoma; intrasellar ganglioglioma; intrasellar gangliocytoma; intrasellar desmoplastic infantile ganglioglioma; intrasellar dysembryoplastic neuroepithelial tumor; intrasellar central neurocytoma; intrasellar extraventricular neurocytoma; intrasellar cerebellar liponeurocytoma; intrasellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar pituitary neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar sellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar parasellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar suprasellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar infrasellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar retrosellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar presellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar laterosellar neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar ectopic neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar metastatic neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar neuroendocrine carcinoma; intrasellar large cell neuroendocrine carcinoma; intrasellar small cell neuroendocrine carcinoma; intrasellar mixed neuroendocrine carcinoma; intrasellar atypical neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar typical neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar well-differentiated neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar moderately differentiated neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar poorly differentiated neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar undifferentiated neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar grade 1 neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar grade 2 neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar grade 3 neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar grade 4 neuroendocrine tumor; intrasellar Ki-67 index; intrasellar mitotic count; intrasellar proliferation index; intrasellar necrosis; intrasellar vascular invasion; intrasellar perineural invasion; intrasellar lymphatic invasion; intrasellar bone invasion; intrasellar dural invasion; intrasellar brain invasion; intrasellar cerebrospinal fluid dissemination; intrasellar systemic metastasis; intrasellar extrasellar extension; intrasellar suprasellar extension; intrasellar retrosellar extension; intras

Meer zien Lees minder
Instelling
Vak

Voorbeeld van de inhoud

GCU NUR-631 FINAL EXAM AND
STUDY GUIDE

NEWEST EXAM QUESTIONS AND

CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS

WITH RATIONALES



A student asks the healthcare professional to describe exotoxins. Which
statement by the professional is best?

a. Exotoxins are contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria.

b. Exotoxins are released during the lysis of bacteria.

c. Exotoxins are able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades.

d. Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. - ANSWER-

ANS: D

RATIONALE: Exotoxins are proteins released during bacterial growth.
Exotoxins are not contained in cell walls of gramnegative bacteria, released
during lysis of bacterial, or able to initiate the complement and coagulation
cascades.




Page 1 of 82

,A severely stressed patient has hypoglycemia each time the patient's blood
glucose is checked. The healthcare professional should order laboratory tests to
measure which hormone in the patient's blood?



a. Epinephrine

b. Norepinephrine

c. Cortisol

d. Growth hormone - ANSWER- ANS: C

RATIONALE: One of the primary effects of cortisol is the stimulation of
gluconeogenesis or the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources,
such as amino or free fatty acids in the liver. Neither reaction is a result of the
effects of any of the other hormones.

Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a
stress response?

a. Norepinephrine

b. Epinephrine

c. Cortisol

d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) - ANSWER- ANS: A
RATIONALE: The release of norepinephrine promotes arousal, increased
vigilance, increased anxiety, and other protective emotional responses.

Epinephrine's effects are primarily on the cardiovascular system. Cortisol's chief
effects involve metabolic processes. By inhibiting the use of metabolic
substances while promoting their formation, cortisol mobilizes glucose, amino
acids, lipids, and fatty acids and delivers them to the bloodstream. ACTH binds


Page 2 of 82

,with specific receptors on the adrenal glands which causes the release of the
glucocorticoids.



Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the
secretion of what?

Epinephrine and aldosterone Norepinephrine and cortisol

b. Epinephrine and norepinephrine

c. Acetylcholine and cortisol - ANSWER- ANS: C

RATIONALE: The sympathetic nervous system is aroused during the stress
response and causes the medulla of the adrenal gland to release catecholamines
(80% epinephrine and 20% norepinephrine) into the bloodstream. Sympathetic
stimulation of the adrenal medulla does not cause the secretion of aldosterone,
cortisol, or acetylcholine.



What is the link between major depression and cortisol secretion?

a. Individuals with depression show suppression of plasma cortisol when
given dexamethasone.

b. Individuals with depression have a decreased plasma cortisol level,
despite the



administration of exogenous corticosteroids.

c. Individuals with depression show that persistently elevated plasma
cortisol levels can result in inflammation that is believed to trigger depression.



Page 3 of 82

, d. Individuals with depression have normal plasma cortisol levels
throughout the day when they take antidepressant medication as prescribed. -

ANSWER- ANS: C RATIONALE: Persistent elevations in cortisol may also
induce immunosuppression that compromises the body's immune systems to
contain inflammation and infectious diseases. Increasing evidence suggests that
inflammation is another risk factor that triggers the onset of depression. The
options related to dexamethasone and exogenous corticosteroids are not true as
they apply to depression and cortisol secretion.

A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of
which hormone?

Cortisol

Thyroid hormone Somatostatin

Alpha endorphin - ANSWER- ANS: A

RATIONALE: Stress has been shown to increase adrenocorticotropic hormone
secretion. Thyroid hormone, somatostatin, and alpha endorphin are not
increased with stress.




A student asks the healthcare professional how immunity is decreased by stress.
The professional responds that during a stress response, the helper T (Th) 1
response is suppressed by which hormone?

a. ACTH

b. Cortisol

c. Prolactin


Page 4 of 82

Geschreven voor

Vak

Documentinformatie

Geüpload op
12 mei 2026
Aantal pagina's
82
Geschreven in
2025/2026
Type
Tentamen (uitwerkingen)
Bevat
Vragen en antwoorden

Onderwerpen

$24.99
Krijg toegang tot het volledige document:

Verkeerd document? Gratis ruilen Binnen 14 dagen na aankoop en voor het downloaden kun je een ander document kiezen. Je kunt het bedrag gewoon opnieuw besteden.
Geschreven door studenten die geslaagd zijn
Direct beschikbaar na je betaling
Online lezen of als PDF

Maak kennis met de verkoper
Seller avatar
TESTBANKNURSEHUB
4.0
(2)

Maak kennis met de verkoper

Seller avatar
TESTBANKNURSEHUB Chamberlain College Of Nursing
Volgen Je moet ingelogd zijn om studenten of vakken te kunnen volgen
Verkocht
8
Lid sinds
8 maanden
Aantal volgers
0
Documenten
3097
Laatst verkocht
2 weken geleden
your document plug

I offer all types of documents notes, exams and study guide practice exams. Feel free to contact me for any clarification and document prices.

4.0

2 beoordelingen

5
0
4
2
3
0
2
0
1
0

Recent door jou bekeken

Waarom studenten kiezen voor Stuvia

Gemaakt door medestudenten, geverifieerd door reviews

Kwaliteit die je kunt vertrouwen: geschreven door studenten die slaagden en beoordeeld door anderen die dit document gebruikten.

Niet tevreden? Kies een ander document

Geen zorgen! Je kunt voor hetzelfde geld direct een ander document kiezen dat beter past bij wat je zoekt.

Betaal zoals je wilt, start meteen met leren

Geen abonnement, geen verplichtingen. Betaal zoals je gewend bent via iDeal of creditcard en download je PDF-document meteen.

Student with book image

“Gekocht, gedownload en geslaagd. Zo makkelijk kan het dus zijn.”

Alisha Student

Bezig met je bronvermelding?

Maak nauwkeurige citaten in APA, MLA en Harvard met onze gratis bronnengenerator.

Bezig met je bronvermelding?

Veelgestelde vragen