N212 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM FINAL
STUDY GUIDE 2026| Eastwick College |
100% Correct Certification
1. A patient with chronic gastroesophageal reflux develops Barrett’s
esophagus. Which cellular adaptation is this?
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Neoplasia
Answer: B. Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another (e.g., squamous → columnar in esophagus) due to chronic irritation.
2. Which of the following describes physiologic atrophy?
A. Thymus shrinking in adulthood
B. Loss of muscle mass in a casted limb
C. Brain atrophy in Alzheimer’s disease
D. Endometrial atrophy after menopause
Answer: A. Thymus shrinking in adulthood
Rationale: Physiologic atrophy is a normal, age-related process. Thymus involution
is expected with aging; the others are pathologic.
3. A weightlifter’s enlarged skeletal muscles are an example of:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
,D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Hypertrophy
Rationale: Increased workload causes an increase in individual muscle cell size
(hypertrophy), not cell number.
4. Which type of necrosis is most characteristic of tuberculosis?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: C. Caseous necrosis
Rationale: Caseous necrosis has a “cheese-like” appearance and is typical in
mycobacterial infections (TB).
5. A patient with a fever of 101°F has increased release of oxygen from
hemoglobin. What shift on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve occurs?
A. Left shift
B. Right shift
C. No shift
D. Paroxysmal shift
Answer: B. Right shift
Rationale: Fever, acidosis, and increased CO₂ cause a right shift, meaning oxygen is
more readily released to tissues.
6. Which laboratory finding indicates early acute inflammation?
A. Monocytosis
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Neutrophilia
D. Eosinophilia
Answer: C. Neutrophilia
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation, so their count
rises early.
,7. A patient’s complete blood count shows a “left shift.” What does this
indicate?
A. Increased mature neutrophils
B. Increased immature neutrophils (bands)
C. Decreased white blood cells
D. High lymphocyte count
Answer: B. Increased immature neutrophils (bands)
Rationale: Left shift reflects increased band neutrophils, indicating an acute
infection or inflammatory response.
8. Which inflammatory mediator causes bronchospasm and can be life-
threatening?
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandin
C. Leukotriene
D. Bradykinin
Answer: C. Leukotriene
Rationale: Leukotrienes cause prolonged bronchoconstriction, increased vascular
permeability, and mucus secretion.
9. Opsonization enhances immune defense by:
A. Directly killing bacteria
B. Tagging pathogens for phagocytosis
C. Activating complement only
D. Releasing histamine
Answer: B. Tagging pathogens for phagocytosis
Rationale: Antibodies or complement proteins coat pathogens, making them easier
for phagocytes to engulf.
10. A patient with septic shock has hypotension due to:
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Vasodilation and capillary leak
, C. Massive vasoconstriction
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Vasodilation and capillary leak
Rationale: Sepsis causes systemic vasodilation and increased capillary
permeability, leading to relative hypovolemia and hypotension.
11. Which organism is the most common cause of fungal infections in humans?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida albicans
C. Cryptococcus
D. Histoplasma
Answer: B. Candida albicans
Rationale: Candida albicans is the most frequent opportunistic fungal pathogen
(thrush, vaginitis, etc.).
12. A patient with a history of IV drug use presents with fever, back pain, and
CVA tenderness. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Cystitis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Urethritis
D. Glomerulonephritis
Answer: B. Pyelonephritis
Rationale: Fever, flank pain, and CVA tenderness indicate kidney infection
(pyelonephritis), especially with risk factors like IV drug use (bacteremia).
13. Which acid-base disturbance would be seen in a patient with
hypoventilation?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis
STUDY GUIDE 2026| Eastwick College |
100% Correct Certification
1. A patient with chronic gastroesophageal reflux develops Barrett’s
esophagus. Which cellular adaptation is this?
A. Dysplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hyperplasia
D. Neoplasia
Answer: B. Metaplasia
Rationale: Metaplasia is the reversible replacement of one differentiated cell type
with another (e.g., squamous → columnar in esophagus) due to chronic irritation.
2. Which of the following describes physiologic atrophy?
A. Thymus shrinking in adulthood
B. Loss of muscle mass in a casted limb
C. Brain atrophy in Alzheimer’s disease
D. Endometrial atrophy after menopause
Answer: A. Thymus shrinking in adulthood
Rationale: Physiologic atrophy is a normal, age-related process. Thymus involution
is expected with aging; the others are pathologic.
3. A weightlifter’s enlarged skeletal muscles are an example of:
A. Hyperplasia
B. Metaplasia
C. Hypertrophy
,D. Dysplasia
Answer: C. Hypertrophy
Rationale: Increased workload causes an increase in individual muscle cell size
(hypertrophy), not cell number.
4. Which type of necrosis is most characteristic of tuberculosis?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Answer: C. Caseous necrosis
Rationale: Caseous necrosis has a “cheese-like” appearance and is typical in
mycobacterial infections (TB).
5. A patient with a fever of 101°F has increased release of oxygen from
hemoglobin. What shift on the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve occurs?
A. Left shift
B. Right shift
C. No shift
D. Paroxysmal shift
Answer: B. Right shift
Rationale: Fever, acidosis, and increased CO₂ cause a right shift, meaning oxygen is
more readily released to tissues.
6. Which laboratory finding indicates early acute inflammation?
A. Monocytosis
B. Lymphocytosis
C. Neutrophilia
D. Eosinophilia
Answer: C. Neutrophilia
Rationale: Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation, so their count
rises early.
,7. A patient’s complete blood count shows a “left shift.” What does this
indicate?
A. Increased mature neutrophils
B. Increased immature neutrophils (bands)
C. Decreased white blood cells
D. High lymphocyte count
Answer: B. Increased immature neutrophils (bands)
Rationale: Left shift reflects increased band neutrophils, indicating an acute
infection or inflammatory response.
8. Which inflammatory mediator causes bronchospasm and can be life-
threatening?
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandin
C. Leukotriene
D. Bradykinin
Answer: C. Leukotriene
Rationale: Leukotrienes cause prolonged bronchoconstriction, increased vascular
permeability, and mucus secretion.
9. Opsonization enhances immune defense by:
A. Directly killing bacteria
B. Tagging pathogens for phagocytosis
C. Activating complement only
D. Releasing histamine
Answer: B. Tagging pathogens for phagocytosis
Rationale: Antibodies or complement proteins coat pathogens, making them easier
for phagocytes to engulf.
10. A patient with septic shock has hypotension due to:
A. Increased cardiac output
B. Vasodilation and capillary leak
, C. Massive vasoconstriction
D. Bradycardia
Answer: B. Vasodilation and capillary leak
Rationale: Sepsis causes systemic vasodilation and increased capillary
permeability, leading to relative hypovolemia and hypotension.
11. Which organism is the most common cause of fungal infections in humans?
A. Aspergillus
B. Candida albicans
C. Cryptococcus
D. Histoplasma
Answer: B. Candida albicans
Rationale: Candida albicans is the most frequent opportunistic fungal pathogen
(thrush, vaginitis, etc.).
12. A patient with a history of IV drug use presents with fever, back pain, and
CVA tenderness. Most likely diagnosis?
A. Cystitis
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Urethritis
D. Glomerulonephritis
Answer: B. Pyelonephritis
Rationale: Fever, flank pain, and CVA tenderness indicate kidney infection
(pyelonephritis), especially with risk factors like IV drug use (bacteremia).
13. Which acid-base disturbance would be seen in a patient with
hypoventilation?
A. Respiratory alkalosis
B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
Answer: C. Respiratory acidosis
