NR603 WEEK 2 EXAM QUESTIONS WITH
100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |
LATEST UPDATE
Advanced Clinical Diagnosis (Chamberlain University)
, NR603 Week 2 Quiz - Questions and Answers
Question 1: During a follow-up visit one week after a spontaneous abortion, which of the following physical
exam findings would most likely indicate normal uterine involution and absence of infection?
• A. Abdomen is distended and tympanic on percussion
• B. Uterus is not palpable on bimanual exam; cervix is open
• C. Uterus is enlarged, boggy, and tender with malodorous vaginal discharge
• D. Uterus is firm, non-tender, and at or just below the
pubic symphysis: Correct Answer D
Question 2: During a patient interview, the provider asks, “How have you been coping emotionally since the
event?” The patient responds, “It’s been really tough emotionally. I’ve been feeling very sad and
overwhelmed, and sometimes it’s hard to get through the day.” Which of the following is the most
appropriate next response by the provider?
• A. That sounds really difficult. Can you tell me more about what your days have been like?
• B. It’s probably just temporary sadness. You’ll be fine with rest.
• C. Let’s move on to your medical history now.
• D. You should really try to be more positive. Things will get
better soon. Correct Answer: A
Question 3: A 35-year-old patient presents with mild tingling in the right lower extremity but has normal
strength, coordination, reflexes, and gait. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in
management?
• A. Follow up with the primary care provider in 6 months
• B. Begin opioid therapy and refer to pain management
• C. Refer to physical therapy within 1–2 weeks
• D. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon
within 1 week Correct Answer: C
Question 4: A patient presents with pain and tingling in the right lower extremity. MRI confirms an L4–L5 disc
bulge with nerve root impingement, consistent with lumbosacral radiculopathy. Which of the following is the
MOST appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
• A. Immediate referral to neurosurgery for surgical intervention
• B. Discharge without follow-up as the symptoms are expected to resolve spontaneously
• C. Prescribe high-dose opioids and recommend strict bed rest
• D. Initiate physical therapy and reassess in
4–6 weeks Correct Answer: D
Question 5: Why is it important to include a breast and thyroid exam during the physical assessment following
a spontaneous abortion?
• A. To screen for breast cancer and thyroid nodules
• B. To determine if thyroid dysfunction resulted in early pregnancy loss
100% CORRECT AND VERIFIED ANSWERS |
LATEST UPDATE
Advanced Clinical Diagnosis (Chamberlain University)
, NR603 Week 2 Quiz - Questions and Answers
Question 1: During a follow-up visit one week after a spontaneous abortion, which of the following physical
exam findings would most likely indicate normal uterine involution and absence of infection?
• A. Abdomen is distended and tympanic on percussion
• B. Uterus is not palpable on bimanual exam; cervix is open
• C. Uterus is enlarged, boggy, and tender with malodorous vaginal discharge
• D. Uterus is firm, non-tender, and at or just below the
pubic symphysis: Correct Answer D
Question 2: During a patient interview, the provider asks, “How have you been coping emotionally since the
event?” The patient responds, “It’s been really tough emotionally. I’ve been feeling very sad and
overwhelmed, and sometimes it’s hard to get through the day.” Which of the following is the most
appropriate next response by the provider?
• A. That sounds really difficult. Can you tell me more about what your days have been like?
• B. It’s probably just temporary sadness. You’ll be fine with rest.
• C. Let’s move on to your medical history now.
• D. You should really try to be more positive. Things will get
better soon. Correct Answer: A
Question 3: A 35-year-old patient presents with mild tingling in the right lower extremity but has normal
strength, coordination, reflexes, and gait. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in
management?
• A. Follow up with the primary care provider in 6 months
• B. Begin opioid therapy and refer to pain management
• C. Refer to physical therapy within 1–2 weeks
• D. Refer to an orthopedic surgeon
within 1 week Correct Answer: C
Question 4: A patient presents with pain and tingling in the right lower extremity. MRI confirms an L4–L5 disc
bulge with nerve root impingement, consistent with lumbosacral radiculopathy. Which of the following is the
MOST appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
• A. Immediate referral to neurosurgery for surgical intervention
• B. Discharge without follow-up as the symptoms are expected to resolve spontaneously
• C. Prescribe high-dose opioids and recommend strict bed rest
• D. Initiate physical therapy and reassess in
4–6 weeks Correct Answer: D
Question 5: Why is it important to include a breast and thyroid exam during the physical assessment following
a spontaneous abortion?
• A. To screen for breast cancer and thyroid nodules
• B. To determine if thyroid dysfunction resulted in early pregnancy loss
