CEA PREP FULL PRACTICE TEST EXAM
LATEST 2026/2027 COMPLETE STUDY
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS
ASSURED A+
,CEA PREP FULL PRACTICE TEST EXAM LATEST 2026/2027
COMPLETE STUDY QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS ASSURED A+
A 90-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her neighbor. She states that everything is fine,
but the nurse practitioner notes that she has poor hygiene and bruises on her trunk. The neighbor
is concerned that the patient often has no money to buy food, despite income from social security
and a coal miner's pension. The nurse practitioner suspects abuse. Which of the following is the
nurse practitioner obligated to do next?
*Report the case to the proper authorities.
*Tell the neighbor to check on the woman daily and report back.
*Document the data and report the information to risk management.
*Call the patient's family and inquire about the concerns. - Answer>>> Report the case to the
proper authorities.
Rationale: Remember, that suspected abuse is always a reportable event and therefore should be
the right answer you gravitate toward on any question that suggest that there is any type of actual
or suspected elder abuse.
Your patient presents to the urgent care clinic with a swollen exudative pharynx, profound
fatigue, and a very tender left upper quadrant abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
*Pancreatitis
*Strep pharyngitis
*Tonsillitis - Answer>>> Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Rationale: Splenomegaly in the setting of upper respiratory infection is almost always EBV.
Strep pharyngitis does also have similar attributes but does not explain the splenomegaly.
Pancreatitis also has left upper quadrant discomfort but does not have URI symptoms. Tonsillitis
is possible except it also does not explain splenomegaly.
,An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T = 103°F
(39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left sternal border. After
initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate intervention is to: - Answer>>>
reevaluate the patient in 10 days
Rationale: Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either innocent (benign)
or pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions). Proper evaluation and monitoring are
essential to determine the nature of the murmur and to ensure the child's health and development
are not adversely affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course of action.
An 88-year-old male presents with concerns about memory loss. He feels good, takes an aspirin
daily, and has no chronic diseases. He lives alone, drives his own car, and manages his financial
affairs. To evaluate his memory, which of the following tests should the nurse practitioner
choose? - Answer>>> Mini-Cog Test
Rationale: The Mini-Cog is quick to administer and has been shown to be effective in identifying
individuals who may need further cognitive assessment. It can help healthcare providers initiate
appropriate interventions or referrals to specialists for a more comprehensive evaluation if
cognitive impairment is suspected.
A 3-year-old child presents with a swollen, red, and tender knee. The child has a fever and
refuses to bear weight on the leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Septic arthritis
*Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
*Reactive arthritis
*Osteomyelitis - Answer>>> Septic arthritis
Rationale: Septic arthritis in toddlers is a serious condition where a joint becomes infected,
usually by bacteria or less commonly by fungi or viruses.
Symptoms:
Joint Pain: Often severe and localized to the affected joint.
Swelling: The joint may appear swollen, warm to the touch, and red.
, Limited Movement: They may refuse to use the affected limb or avoid bearing weight on it.
Fever: Often high, accompanying the infection.
Irritability: Due to pain and discomfort.
A 70-year-old man presents with acute onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. His
symptoms started 2 hours ago. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
*Administer intravenous tPA
*Start anticoagulation therapy
*Perform a CT scan of the head
*Administer aspirin - Answer>>> Perform a CT scan of the head
Rationale: A CT scan may be performed in cases of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking
(aphasia) to assess for possible acute neurological conditions, such as stroke or intracranial
hemorrhage. Stroke is a leading cause of sudden onset right-sided weakness and aphasia. A CT
scan of the brain is often the initial imaging test used to assess for acute ischemic stroke (due to a
blocked blood vessel) or hemorrhagic stroke (due to bleeding into the brain).
A 25-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of fluctuating mood states, including
periods of mild depression and hypomania. These symptoms have not been severe enough to
meet the criteria for major depressive or manic episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis? -
Answer>>> Cyclothymic disorder
Rationale: Cyclothymic Disorder involves chronic mood fluctuations that include periods of
hypomanic and depressive symptoms. These symptoms are less severe than those in Bipolar I or
II disorders but can significantly impact daily functioning. Early diagnosis and appropriate
treatment, including psychotherapy, medications, and lifestyle changes, can help manage
symptoms and improve quality of life.
Which of the following drug classes are used to prevent migraine headaches? - Answer>>> Beta-
blockers
LATEST 2026/2027 COMPLETE STUDY
QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS
ASSURED A+
,CEA PREP FULL PRACTICE TEST EXAM LATEST 2026/2027
COMPLETE STUDY QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS 100% GUARANTEED PASS ASSURED A+
A 90-year-old female is brought to the clinic by her neighbor. She states that everything is fine,
but the nurse practitioner notes that she has poor hygiene and bruises on her trunk. The neighbor
is concerned that the patient often has no money to buy food, despite income from social security
and a coal miner's pension. The nurse practitioner suspects abuse. Which of the following is the
nurse practitioner obligated to do next?
*Report the case to the proper authorities.
*Tell the neighbor to check on the woman daily and report back.
*Document the data and report the information to risk management.
*Call the patient's family and inquire about the concerns. - Answer>>> Report the case to the
proper authorities.
Rationale: Remember, that suspected abuse is always a reportable event and therefore should be
the right answer you gravitate toward on any question that suggest that there is any type of actual
or suspected elder abuse.
Your patient presents to the urgent care clinic with a swollen exudative pharynx, profound
fatigue, and a very tender left upper quadrant abdomen. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
*Pancreatitis
*Strep pharyngitis
*Tonsillitis - Answer>>> Epstein Barr virus (EBV)
Rationale: Splenomegaly in the setting of upper respiratory infection is almost always EBV.
Strep pharyngitis does also have similar attributes but does not explain the splenomegaly.
Pancreatitis also has left upper quadrant discomfort but does not have URI symptoms. Tonsillitis
is possible except it also does not explain splenomegaly.
,An 18-month-old child presents with a bulging, immobile tympanic membrane; T = 103°F
(39.4°C). Assessment also reveals a grade II/VI systolic murmur at the left sternal border. After
initiation of treatment for otitis media, the most appropriate intervention is to: - Answer>>>
reevaluate the patient in 10 days
Rationale: Heart murmurs in toddlers are relatively common and can be either innocent (benign)
or pathological (indicative of underlying heart conditions). Proper evaluation and monitoring are
essential to determine the nature of the murmur and to ensure the child's health and development
are not adversely affected. Re-evaluating in 10 days is an appropriate next course of action.
An 88-year-old male presents with concerns about memory loss. He feels good, takes an aspirin
daily, and has no chronic diseases. He lives alone, drives his own car, and manages his financial
affairs. To evaluate his memory, which of the following tests should the nurse practitioner
choose? - Answer>>> Mini-Cog Test
Rationale: The Mini-Cog is quick to administer and has been shown to be effective in identifying
individuals who may need further cognitive assessment. It can help healthcare providers initiate
appropriate interventions or referrals to specialists for a more comprehensive evaluation if
cognitive impairment is suspected.
A 3-year-old child presents with a swollen, red, and tender knee. The child has a fever and
refuses to bear weight on the leg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
*Septic arthritis
*Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
*Reactive arthritis
*Osteomyelitis - Answer>>> Septic arthritis
Rationale: Septic arthritis in toddlers is a serious condition where a joint becomes infected,
usually by bacteria or less commonly by fungi or viruses.
Symptoms:
Joint Pain: Often severe and localized to the affected joint.
Swelling: The joint may appear swollen, warm to the touch, and red.
, Limited Movement: They may refuse to use the affected limb or avoid bearing weight on it.
Fever: Often high, accompanying the infection.
Irritability: Due to pain and discomfort.
A 70-year-old man presents with acute onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. His
symptoms started 2 hours ago. What is the most appropriate initial intervention?
*Administer intravenous tPA
*Start anticoagulation therapy
*Perform a CT scan of the head
*Administer aspirin - Answer>>> Perform a CT scan of the head
Rationale: A CT scan may be performed in cases of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking
(aphasia) to assess for possible acute neurological conditions, such as stroke or intracranial
hemorrhage. Stroke is a leading cause of sudden onset right-sided weakness and aphasia. A CT
scan of the brain is often the initial imaging test used to assess for acute ischemic stroke (due to a
blocked blood vessel) or hemorrhagic stroke (due to bleeding into the brain).
A 25-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of fluctuating mood states, including
periods of mild depression and hypomania. These symptoms have not been severe enough to
meet the criteria for major depressive or manic episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis? -
Answer>>> Cyclothymic disorder
Rationale: Cyclothymic Disorder involves chronic mood fluctuations that include periods of
hypomanic and depressive symptoms. These symptoms are less severe than those in Bipolar I or
II disorders but can significantly impact daily functioning. Early diagnosis and appropriate
treatment, including psychotherapy, medications, and lifestyle changes, can help manage
symptoms and improve quality of life.
Which of the following drug classes are used to prevent migraine headaches? - Answer>>> Beta-
blockers
