NR 603 Week 2 Quiz V2 2026 | Practice Questions
& Verified Answers | Advanced Primary Care
Review
1. A 36-year-old female presents with fever, myalgia, and confusion. She
recently returned from a camping trip in the Midwest and reports multiple
tick bites. Physical exam reveals petechial rash on the wrists and ankles.
Laboratory tests show thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which
of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Start doxycycline empirically
B. Order serologic testing and wait for results before starting treatment
C. Initiate corticosteroids for possible autoimmune encephalitis
D. Refer for lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis
Answer: A
2. A 42-year-old female presents with lower back and pelvic pain for the
past week. She reports weakness and numbness in her left foot and she had
an unexpected episode of incontinence this morning. Upon examination, the
NP observes weakness (3/5) in the left foot with dorsiflexion &
plantarflexion and there is a diminished patellar reflex on the left. Which of
the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this
patient?
A. Initiate NSAIDs and schedule physical therapy
B. Order a pelvic ultrasound and refer to gynecology
C. Monitor symptoms and re-evaluate in 48 hours
D. Obtain urgent MRI of the lumbosacral spine
Answer: D
3. A patient presents for a routine evaluation. She has no complaints other
than occasional tingling in the right lower extremity. Neurologic exam
reveals full strength (5/5) in all extremities, intact coordination, and normal
reflexes. Bilateral lower sensation is intact to light touch and pin prick.
, Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate
clinical interpretation?
A. The findings are indicative of cauda equina syndrome and require
emergent surgical referral
& Verified Answers | Advanced Primary Care
Review
1. A 36-year-old female presents with fever, myalgia, and confusion. She
recently returned from a camping trip in the Midwest and reports multiple
tick bites. Physical exam reveals petechial rash on the wrists and ankles.
Laboratory tests show thrombocytopenia and elevated liver enzymes. Which
of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A. Start doxycycline empirically
B. Order serologic testing and wait for results before starting treatment
C. Initiate corticosteroids for possible autoimmune encephalitis
D. Refer for lumbar puncture to rule out meningitis
Answer: A
2. A 42-year-old female presents with lower back and pelvic pain for the
past week. She reports weakness and numbness in her left foot and she had
an unexpected episode of incontinence this morning. Upon examination, the
NP observes weakness (3/5) in the left foot with dorsiflexion &
plantarflexion and there is a diminished patellar reflex on the left. Which of
the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this
patient?
A. Initiate NSAIDs and schedule physical therapy
B. Order a pelvic ultrasound and refer to gynecology
C. Monitor symptoms and re-evaluate in 48 hours
D. Obtain urgent MRI of the lumbosacral spine
Answer: D
3. A patient presents for a routine evaluation. She has no complaints other
than occasional tingling in the right lower extremity. Neurologic exam
reveals full strength (5/5) in all extremities, intact coordination, and normal
reflexes. Bilateral lower sensation is intact to light touch and pin prick.
, Based on these findings, which of the following is the most appropriate
clinical interpretation?
A. The findings are indicative of cauda equina syndrome and require
emergent surgical referral
