ATI RN Pharmacology Retake Exam May 2026 – Verified Questions &
Answers | Latest Updated
,SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICATIONS (Questions 1-25)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a
client. Which laboratory test should the nurse review prior to administration?
A) PTT
B) Total iron-binding capacity
C) WBC
D) PT
Answer: D) PT (Prothrombin Time)
Rationale: PT and INR are used to monitor warfarin therapy because warfarin
affects the extrinsic clotting pathway (factors VII, X, II, IX). PTT monitors heparin
therapy. Warfarin's therapeutic INR range is typically 2-3 .
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription
for lisinopril. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Tinnitus
D) Hypotension
Answer: D) Hypotension
Rationale: Lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) causes vasodilation, which can lead to
hypotension, especially after the first dose. First-dose hypotension is most
significant in clients who are volume-depleted or on diuretics .
,Q3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about sublingual nitroglycerin
for angina. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) "Swallow the tablet with water for faster absorption."
B) "Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain stops, up to three doses."
C) "If you have a headache, this means the medication is not working."
D) "Store the tablets in the refrigerator to maintain potency."
Answer: B) "Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain stops, up to three
doses."
Rationale: The standard regimen is one tablet every 5 minutes for up to three
doses. If pain persists after three tablets, emergency care is needed. Tablets are
placed under the tongue, not swallowed, and stored at room temperature .
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client with hypertension who is receiving
propranolol. Which finding requires the nurse's intervention?
A) Heart rate of 56/min
B) SaO2 95% on 2 L/min oxygen
C) Respirations 22/min
D) Blood pressure 106/68 mm Hg
Answer: A) Heart rate of 56/min
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-cardioselective beta-blocker that causes
bradycardia. A heart rate below 60/min may require dose reduction or withholding
the medication. The nurse should report this finding to the provider .
, Q5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for nifedipine. Which
finding should the nurse assess prior to administration?
A) Blood pressure
B) Respiratory rate
C) Temperature
D) Oxygen saturation
Answer: A) Blood pressure
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and
angina. It causes vasodilation and can lead to hypotension, so blood pressure
should be assessed before administration .
Q6. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily.
Which laboratory value requires immediate notification of the provider?
A) Serum sodium 135 mEq/L
B) Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C) Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
D) Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Answer: B) Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting. A serum
potassium of 2.8 mEq/L indicates severe hypokalemia, which increases the risk of
cardiac dysrhythmias, especially digoxin toxicity. Normal potassium is 3.5-5.0
mEq/L .
Answers | Latest Updated
,SECTION 1: CARDIOVASCULAR MEDICATIONS (Questions 1-25)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of warfarin to a
client. Which laboratory test should the nurse review prior to administration?
A) PTT
B) Total iron-binding capacity
C) WBC
D) PT
Answer: D) PT (Prothrombin Time)
Rationale: PT and INR are used to monitor warfarin therapy because warfarin
affects the extrinsic clotting pathway (factors VII, X, II, IX). PTT monitors heparin
therapy. Warfarin's therapeutic INR range is typically 2-3 .
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and a new prescription
for lisinopril. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Tinnitus
D) Hypotension
Answer: D) Hypotension
Rationale: Lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) causes vasodilation, which can lead to
hypotension, especially after the first dose. First-dose hypotension is most
significant in clients who are volume-depleted or on diuretics .
,Q3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about sublingual nitroglycerin
for angina. Which instruction should the nurse include?
A) "Swallow the tablet with water for faster absorption."
B) "Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain stops, up to three doses."
C) "If you have a headache, this means the medication is not working."
D) "Store the tablets in the refrigerator to maintain potency."
Answer: B) "Take one tablet every 5 minutes until pain stops, up to three
doses."
Rationale: The standard regimen is one tablet every 5 minutes for up to three
doses. If pain persists after three tablets, emergency care is needed. Tablets are
placed under the tongue, not swallowed, and stored at room temperature .
Q4. A nurse is assessing a client with hypertension who is receiving
propranolol. Which finding requires the nurse's intervention?
A) Heart rate of 56/min
B) SaO2 95% on 2 L/min oxygen
C) Respirations 22/min
D) Blood pressure 106/68 mm Hg
Answer: A) Heart rate of 56/min
Rationale: Propranolol is a non-cardioselective beta-blocker that causes
bradycardia. A heart rate below 60/min may require dose reduction or withholding
the medication. The nurse should report this finding to the provider .
, Q5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for nifedipine. Which
finding should the nurse assess prior to administration?
A) Blood pressure
B) Respiratory rate
C) Temperature
D) Oxygen saturation
Answer: A) Blood pressure
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for hypertension and
angina. It causes vasodilation and can lead to hypotension, so blood pressure
should be assessed before administration .
Q6. A client with heart failure is receiving furosemide 40 mg IV twice daily.
Which laboratory value requires immediate notification of the provider?
A) Serum sodium 135 mEq/L
B) Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
C) Serum creatinine 1.0 mg/dL
D) Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
Answer: B) Serum potassium 2.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes potassium wasting. A serum
potassium of 2.8 mEq/L indicates severe hypokalemia, which increases the risk of
cardiac dysrhythmias, especially digoxin toxicity. Normal potassium is 3.5-5.0
mEq/L .
