Prometric CNA Exam 2026 — 200 Practice
MCQs with answers & rationales
All questions reflect the Prometric CNA competency evaluation format covering both the
Written/Oral Exam and Skills Evaluation domains.
Key Domains Covered: Resident Rights & Independence · Communication & Interpersonal
Skills · Infection Control & Safety · Basic Nursing Skills · Personal Care · Mental Health &
Social Service Needs · Care of Cognitively Impaired Residents · Basic Restorative Services ·
Residents with Special Needs · Role of the Nurse Aide
1. What does "CNA" stand for?
A) Certified Nurse Assistant B) Clinical Nurse Aide C) Certified Nursing Assistant D) Clinical
Nursing Associate
(Correct Answer: C) Certified Nursing Assistant Rationale: CNA stands for Certified
Nursing Assistant. CNAs provide basic care to patients/residents under the supervision of a
licensed nurse (LPN or RN).
2. Which of the following is the MOST important thing a CNA must do before performing
any procedure on a resident?
A) Document the procedure in the chart B) Wash their hands C) Notify the supervisor D) Gather
all necessary supplies
(Correct Answer: B) Wash their hands Rationale: Hand hygiene is the single most effective
way to prevent the spread of infection. It must be performed before and after every resident
contact and procedure, making it the top priority.
3. When a resident has the right to refuse treatment, the CNA should:
A) Perform the treatment anyway B) Tell the resident they have no choice C) Report the refusal
to the charge nurse immediately D) Document nothing until the nurse gives further instruction
,(Correct Answer: C) Report the refusal to the charge nurse immediately Rationale:
Residents have the legal right to refuse any treatment. The CNA must respect this right, stop the
procedure, and promptly report the refusal to the charge nurse so the care team can follow up.
4. What is the normal adult resting heart rate range?
A) 40–60 beats per minute B) 60–100 beats per minute C) 100–120 beats per minute D) 50–80
beats per minute
(Correct Answer: B) 60–100 beats per minute Rationale: A normal adult resting heart rate is
60–100 beats per minute. Values above 100 (tachycardia) or below 60 (bradycardia) should be
reported to the nurse.
5. A resident tells the CNA, "I want to die." The CNA should:
A) Reassure them and change the subject B) Tell the resident they don't mean that C) Report the
statement to the nurse immediately D) Document it and wait for the next shift
(Correct Answer: C) Report the statement to the nurse immediately Rationale: Any
statement about wanting to die or suicidal ideation must be taken seriously and reported to the
supervising nurse immediately. This is a safety issue that requires prompt professional
assessment.
6. Which of the following is an example of "passive range of motion" (PROM)?
A) The resident exercises on their own B) The CNA moves the resident's joints through their full
range C) The resident walks with a walker D) The resident uses a resistance band
(Correct Answer: B) The CNA moves the resident's joints through their full range
Rationale: Passive range of motion means the CNA performs the movement for the resident,
who does not actively participate. It is used when residents cannot move their limbs
independently.
7. The purpose of turning and repositioning a bedridden resident every 2 hours is to:
A) Prevent contractures only B) Keep the resident comfortable C) Prevent pressure injuries
(bedsores) D) Improve cardiovascular circulation
,(Correct Answer: C) Prevent pressure injuries (bedsores) Rationale: Pressure injuries
(decubitus ulcers) develop when blood flow to the skin is cut off by prolonged pressure.
Repositioning every 2 hours relieves pressure, restoring circulation and preventing tissue
breakdown.
8. When measuring a resident's blood pressure, the cuff should be placed:
A) Over clothing on the upper arm B) Directly on the skin, 1 inch above the antecubital space C)
On the forearm just above the wrist D) As tightly as possible to get an accurate reading
(Correct Answer: B) Directly on the skin, 1 inch above the antecubital space Rationale: The
blood pressure cuff must be placed on bare skin approximately 1 inch (2–3 cm) above the
antecubital fossa (inner elbow crease). Clothing under the cuff leads to inaccurate readings.
9. Which of the following is the correct order for donning (putting on) PPE?
A) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles B) Gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves C) Mask, gloves,
gown, goggles D) Goggles, gloves, mask, gown
(Correct Answer: B) Gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves Rationale: The CDC-
recommended order for donning PPE is: Gown → Mask or respirator → Goggles/face shield →
Gloves. Gloves go on last because they are the final barrier before touching the patient.
10. When removing (doffing) PPE, which item should be removed FIRST?
A) Mask B) Gown C) Gloves D) Goggles
(Correct Answer: C) Gloves Rationale: Gloves are the most contaminated item and should be
removed first using the glove-to-glove, skin-to-skin technique to prevent self-contamination. The
mask/respirator is removed last.
11. A resident with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) should be positioned at what angle
during meals?
A) Flat (0°) B) 30° (semi-reclined) C) 45° (semi-Fowler's) D) 90° (fully upright)
, (Correct Answer: D) 90° (fully upright) Rationale: Residents with dysphagia should sit
upright at 90° during meals and for at least 30 minutes afterward to use gravity to aid swallowing
and reduce the risk of aspiration.
12. What does the acronym "RACE" stand for in fire safety?
A) Run, Activate, Call, Evacuate B) Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate C) Remove,
Alert, Contain, Exit D) React, Assess, Call, Escape
(Correct Answer: B) Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate Rationale: RACE is the
fire emergency protocol: Rescue anyone in danger → Activate the alarm → Contain the fire
(close doors/windows) → Extinguish if safe or Evacuate residents and staff.
13. The acronym "PASS" is used when operating a fire extinguisher. What does it stand
for?
A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep B) Push, Alert, Shoot, Spray C) Pull, Activate, Stand, Spray D)
Point, Aim, Squeeze, Stand
(Correct Answer: A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep Rationale: PASS: Pull the pin → Aim at the
base of the fire → Squeeze the handle → Sweep from side to side at the base of the flames.
Always aim at the base of the fire, not the flames.
14. A CNA notices a resident has a red, intact area of skin over the coccyx that does not
blanch when pressed. This is classified as:
A) Stage 2 pressure injury B) Stage 1 pressure injury C) Deep tissue injury D) Unstageable
pressure injury
(Correct Answer: B) Stage 1 pressure injury Rationale: A Stage 1 pressure injury is
characterized by intact skin with a localized area of non-blanchable redness. The skin is
unbroken but damaged. It must be reported and documented immediately.
15. When performing perineal care on a female resident, the CNA should wipe:
A) Back to front to clean thoroughly B) Front to back (from urethra toward rectum) C) In
circular motions for best coverage D) From rectum to urethra
MCQs with answers & rationales
All questions reflect the Prometric CNA competency evaluation format covering both the
Written/Oral Exam and Skills Evaluation domains.
Key Domains Covered: Resident Rights & Independence · Communication & Interpersonal
Skills · Infection Control & Safety · Basic Nursing Skills · Personal Care · Mental Health &
Social Service Needs · Care of Cognitively Impaired Residents · Basic Restorative Services ·
Residents with Special Needs · Role of the Nurse Aide
1. What does "CNA" stand for?
A) Certified Nurse Assistant B) Clinical Nurse Aide C) Certified Nursing Assistant D) Clinical
Nursing Associate
(Correct Answer: C) Certified Nursing Assistant Rationale: CNA stands for Certified
Nursing Assistant. CNAs provide basic care to patients/residents under the supervision of a
licensed nurse (LPN or RN).
2. Which of the following is the MOST important thing a CNA must do before performing
any procedure on a resident?
A) Document the procedure in the chart B) Wash their hands C) Notify the supervisor D) Gather
all necessary supplies
(Correct Answer: B) Wash their hands Rationale: Hand hygiene is the single most effective
way to prevent the spread of infection. It must be performed before and after every resident
contact and procedure, making it the top priority.
3. When a resident has the right to refuse treatment, the CNA should:
A) Perform the treatment anyway B) Tell the resident they have no choice C) Report the refusal
to the charge nurse immediately D) Document nothing until the nurse gives further instruction
,(Correct Answer: C) Report the refusal to the charge nurse immediately Rationale:
Residents have the legal right to refuse any treatment. The CNA must respect this right, stop the
procedure, and promptly report the refusal to the charge nurse so the care team can follow up.
4. What is the normal adult resting heart rate range?
A) 40–60 beats per minute B) 60–100 beats per minute C) 100–120 beats per minute D) 50–80
beats per minute
(Correct Answer: B) 60–100 beats per minute Rationale: A normal adult resting heart rate is
60–100 beats per minute. Values above 100 (tachycardia) or below 60 (bradycardia) should be
reported to the nurse.
5. A resident tells the CNA, "I want to die." The CNA should:
A) Reassure them and change the subject B) Tell the resident they don't mean that C) Report the
statement to the nurse immediately D) Document it and wait for the next shift
(Correct Answer: C) Report the statement to the nurse immediately Rationale: Any
statement about wanting to die or suicidal ideation must be taken seriously and reported to the
supervising nurse immediately. This is a safety issue that requires prompt professional
assessment.
6. Which of the following is an example of "passive range of motion" (PROM)?
A) The resident exercises on their own B) The CNA moves the resident's joints through their full
range C) The resident walks with a walker D) The resident uses a resistance band
(Correct Answer: B) The CNA moves the resident's joints through their full range
Rationale: Passive range of motion means the CNA performs the movement for the resident,
who does not actively participate. It is used when residents cannot move their limbs
independently.
7. The purpose of turning and repositioning a bedridden resident every 2 hours is to:
A) Prevent contractures only B) Keep the resident comfortable C) Prevent pressure injuries
(bedsores) D) Improve cardiovascular circulation
,(Correct Answer: C) Prevent pressure injuries (bedsores) Rationale: Pressure injuries
(decubitus ulcers) develop when blood flow to the skin is cut off by prolonged pressure.
Repositioning every 2 hours relieves pressure, restoring circulation and preventing tissue
breakdown.
8. When measuring a resident's blood pressure, the cuff should be placed:
A) Over clothing on the upper arm B) Directly on the skin, 1 inch above the antecubital space C)
On the forearm just above the wrist D) As tightly as possible to get an accurate reading
(Correct Answer: B) Directly on the skin, 1 inch above the antecubital space Rationale: The
blood pressure cuff must be placed on bare skin approximately 1 inch (2–3 cm) above the
antecubital fossa (inner elbow crease). Clothing under the cuff leads to inaccurate readings.
9. Which of the following is the correct order for donning (putting on) PPE?
A) Gloves, gown, mask, goggles B) Gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves C) Mask, gloves,
gown, goggles D) Goggles, gloves, mask, gown
(Correct Answer: B) Gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves Rationale: The CDC-
recommended order for donning PPE is: Gown → Mask or respirator → Goggles/face shield →
Gloves. Gloves go on last because they are the final barrier before touching the patient.
10. When removing (doffing) PPE, which item should be removed FIRST?
A) Mask B) Gown C) Gloves D) Goggles
(Correct Answer: C) Gloves Rationale: Gloves are the most contaminated item and should be
removed first using the glove-to-glove, skin-to-skin technique to prevent self-contamination. The
mask/respirator is removed last.
11. A resident with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) should be positioned at what angle
during meals?
A) Flat (0°) B) 30° (semi-reclined) C) 45° (semi-Fowler's) D) 90° (fully upright)
, (Correct Answer: D) 90° (fully upright) Rationale: Residents with dysphagia should sit
upright at 90° during meals and for at least 30 minutes afterward to use gravity to aid swallowing
and reduce the risk of aspiration.
12. What does the acronym "RACE" stand for in fire safety?
A) Run, Activate, Call, Evacuate B) Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate C) Remove,
Alert, Contain, Exit D) React, Assess, Call, Escape
(Correct Answer: B) Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish/Evacuate Rationale: RACE is the
fire emergency protocol: Rescue anyone in danger → Activate the alarm → Contain the fire
(close doors/windows) → Extinguish if safe or Evacuate residents and staff.
13. The acronym "PASS" is used when operating a fire extinguisher. What does it stand
for?
A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep B) Push, Alert, Shoot, Spray C) Pull, Activate, Stand, Spray D)
Point, Aim, Squeeze, Stand
(Correct Answer: A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep Rationale: PASS: Pull the pin → Aim at the
base of the fire → Squeeze the handle → Sweep from side to side at the base of the flames.
Always aim at the base of the fire, not the flames.
14. A CNA notices a resident has a red, intact area of skin over the coccyx that does not
blanch when pressed. This is classified as:
A) Stage 2 pressure injury B) Stage 1 pressure injury C) Deep tissue injury D) Unstageable
pressure injury
(Correct Answer: B) Stage 1 pressure injury Rationale: A Stage 1 pressure injury is
characterized by intact skin with a localized area of non-blanchable redness. The skin is
unbroken but damaged. It must be reported and documented immediately.
15. When performing perineal care on a female resident, the CNA should wipe:
A) Back to front to clean thoroughly B) Front to back (from urethra toward rectum) C) In
circular motions for best coverage D) From rectum to urethra
