KAPLAN PREDICTOR EXIT TEST EXAM - ACTUAL EXAM NGN -
(180 QUESTIONS) UP-TO-DATE ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED ANSWERS - INSTANT
PDF DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: Kaplan Nursing
CANDIDATE INFORMATION
Candidate Name: _______________________________________
Candidate ID Number: ___________________________________
Testing Date: __________________________________________
Testing Center / Location: _______________________________
Program Name: _________________________________________
Instructor / Proctor: ___________________________________
Signature: _____________________________________________
KAPLAN PREDICTOR EXIT TEST
EXAMINATION BOOKLET (NGN
FORMAT)
Time Allowed: 4 Hours 15 Minutes
Approximate Number of Questions: 180 Questions
Question Types: Single Best Answer, Clinical Judgment, Priority, Delegation,
Pharmacology, NGN Case-Based Scenarios
CORE COMPETENCY DOMAINS
• Safe and Effective Care Environment
, • Management of Care
• Safety and Infection Control
• Health Promotion and Maintenance
• Psychosocial Integrity
• Physiological Integrity
• Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
• Reduction of Risk Potential
• Physiological Adaptation
• Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM)
• Prioritization and Delegation
• Nursing Process and Evidence-Based Practice
This examination simulation is designed to assess readiness for entry-level
nursing practice using Next Generation Nursing (NGN) principles and
advanced clinical judgment models. The assessment reflects the complexity,
prioritization standards, and patient-centered decision-making commonly
evaluated in comprehensive nursing exit examinations. Candidates will
encounter integrated clinical scenarios requiring interpretation of assessment
findings, identification of priority interventions, pharmacologic safety
analysis, and evaluation of patient outcomes across multiple body systems.
Questions are intentionally structured to challenge critical thinking, promote
safe clinical reasoning, and reinforce evidence-based nursing care in acute,
chronic, maternal, pediatric, psychiatric, and community health settings.
CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS
Read each question carefully before selecting the best response. Some
questions require prioritization, interpretation of laboratory findings, or
application of clinical judgment principles. Select the single best answer
unless otherwise indicated. Candidates are expected to apply nursing process
frameworks, safety protocols, and therapeutic communication standards
throughout the examination. Calculators are permitted only if provided by the
testing center. No external references, notes, or electronic devices are allowed
during testing. Allocate time appropriately across all sections. This booklet is
an original educational simulation inspired by standardized nursing exit
examination formats and is intended solely for study and preparation
purposes.
,Q1. A nurse in the emergency department receives report on four clients. Which
client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease receiving 2 L/min
oxygen with oxygen saturation of 91%
B. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis whose potassium level decreased from 5.6
mEq/L to 3.1 mEq/L after insulin administration
C. A postoperative client requesting pain medication 2 hours after abdominal
surgery
D. A client with heart failure reporting 2+ bilateral ankle edema
Correct Answer: B. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis whose potassium
level decreased from 5.6 mEq/L to 3.1 mEq/L after insulin administration
Explanation: Insulin administration drives potassium into the cells and may
rapidly precipitate severe hypokalemia, leading to life-threatening dysrhythmias
and respiratory muscle weakness. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L represents a
significant decline requiring immediate intervention and cardiac monitoring.
Option A reflects a chronic condition with acceptable oxygenation for some
COPD clients. Option C involves pain management but is not immediately life-
threatening. Option D indicates fluid retention but no evidence of acute
decompensation.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Platelet count decreased from 240,000/mm³ to 92,000/mm³
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 68 seconds
C. Small ecchymosis at the IV insertion site
D. Hemoglobin level of 12.8 g/dL
Correct Answer: A. Platelet count decreased from 240,000/mm³ to
92,000/mm³
Explanation: A dramatic platelet decrease during heparin therapy suggests
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious immune-mediated reaction
associated with thrombosis rather than bleeding alone. The nurse must stop the
infusion and notify the provider immediately. Option B may represent a
therapeutic aPTT depending on institutional range. Option C is a minor
expected side effect. Option D is within normal range.
, Q3. A nurse is caring for a client admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Initiate droplet precautions
B. Administer prescribed acetaminophen
C. Encourage oral fluid intake
D. Obtain a detailed health history
Correct Answer: A. Initiate droplet precautions
Explanation: Bacterial meningitis can spread through respiratory droplets.
Protecting others through immediate infection-control measures is the priority.
Option B may help fever reduction but does not address transmission risk.
Option C is appropriate later if the client can tolerate fluids. Option D is
important but secondary to immediate safety measures.
Q4. A nurse is evaluating a client 12 hours after thyroidectomy. Which finding
requires immediate notification of the provider?
A. Hoarse voice when speaking
B. Pain rated 5/10 at the incision site
C. Small amount of sanguineous drainage on dressing
D. Serum calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A. Hoarse voice when speaking
Explanation: Hoarseness after thyroidectomy may indicate laryngeal nerve
damage or airway edema, both of which can progress to airway compromise.
Prompt assessment is essential. Option B is expected postoperative discomfort.
Option C can occur after surgery in small amounts. Option D is within normal
range and does not indicate hypocalcemia.
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone secretion (SIADH). Which physician prescription should the nurse
question?
A. Fluid restriction to 1,000 mL/day
B. Daily weights
(180 QUESTIONS) UP-TO-DATE ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
100% ACCURATE SOLUTIONS | VERIFIED ANSWERS - INSTANT
PDF DOWNLOAD
Examiner/Administrator: Kaplan Nursing
CANDIDATE INFORMATION
Candidate Name: _______________________________________
Candidate ID Number: ___________________________________
Testing Date: __________________________________________
Testing Center / Location: _______________________________
Program Name: _________________________________________
Instructor / Proctor: ___________________________________
Signature: _____________________________________________
KAPLAN PREDICTOR EXIT TEST
EXAMINATION BOOKLET (NGN
FORMAT)
Time Allowed: 4 Hours 15 Minutes
Approximate Number of Questions: 180 Questions
Question Types: Single Best Answer, Clinical Judgment, Priority, Delegation,
Pharmacology, NGN Case-Based Scenarios
CORE COMPETENCY DOMAINS
• Safe and Effective Care Environment
, • Management of Care
• Safety and Infection Control
• Health Promotion and Maintenance
• Psychosocial Integrity
• Physiological Integrity
• Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
• Reduction of Risk Potential
• Physiological Adaptation
• Clinical Judgment Measurement Model (CJMM)
• Prioritization and Delegation
• Nursing Process and Evidence-Based Practice
This examination simulation is designed to assess readiness for entry-level
nursing practice using Next Generation Nursing (NGN) principles and
advanced clinical judgment models. The assessment reflects the complexity,
prioritization standards, and patient-centered decision-making commonly
evaluated in comprehensive nursing exit examinations. Candidates will
encounter integrated clinical scenarios requiring interpretation of assessment
findings, identification of priority interventions, pharmacologic safety
analysis, and evaluation of patient outcomes across multiple body systems.
Questions are intentionally structured to challenge critical thinking, promote
safe clinical reasoning, and reinforce evidence-based nursing care in acute,
chronic, maternal, pediatric, psychiatric, and community health settings.
CANDIDATE INSTRUCTIONS
Read each question carefully before selecting the best response. Some
questions require prioritization, interpretation of laboratory findings, or
application of clinical judgment principles. Select the single best answer
unless otherwise indicated. Candidates are expected to apply nursing process
frameworks, safety protocols, and therapeutic communication standards
throughout the examination. Calculators are permitted only if provided by the
testing center. No external references, notes, or electronic devices are allowed
during testing. Allocate time appropriately across all sections. This booklet is
an original educational simulation inspired by standardized nursing exit
examination formats and is intended solely for study and preparation
purposes.
,Q1. A nurse in the emergency department receives report on four clients. Which
client should the nurse assess first?
A. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease receiving 2 L/min
oxygen with oxygen saturation of 91%
B. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis whose potassium level decreased from 5.6
mEq/L to 3.1 mEq/L after insulin administration
C. A postoperative client requesting pain medication 2 hours after abdominal
surgery
D. A client with heart failure reporting 2+ bilateral ankle edema
Correct Answer: B. A client with diabetic ketoacidosis whose potassium
level decreased from 5.6 mEq/L to 3.1 mEq/L after insulin administration
Explanation: Insulin administration drives potassium into the cells and may
rapidly precipitate severe hypokalemia, leading to life-threatening dysrhythmias
and respiratory muscle weakness. A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L represents a
significant decline requiring immediate intervention and cardiac monitoring.
Option A reflects a chronic condition with acceptable oxygenation for some
COPD clients. Option C involves pain management but is not immediately life-
threatening. Option D indicates fluid retention but no evidence of acute
decompensation.
Q2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving a continuous heparin infusion.
Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
A. Platelet count decreased from 240,000/mm³ to 92,000/mm³
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 68 seconds
C. Small ecchymosis at the IV insertion site
D. Hemoglobin level of 12.8 g/dL
Correct Answer: A. Platelet count decreased from 240,000/mm³ to
92,000/mm³
Explanation: A dramatic platelet decrease during heparin therapy suggests
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious immune-mediated reaction
associated with thrombosis rather than bleeding alone. The nurse must stop the
infusion and notify the provider immediately. Option B may represent a
therapeutic aPTT depending on institutional range. Option C is a minor
expected side effect. Option D is within normal range.
, Q3. A nurse is caring for a client admitted with suspected bacterial meningitis.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Initiate droplet precautions
B. Administer prescribed acetaminophen
C. Encourage oral fluid intake
D. Obtain a detailed health history
Correct Answer: A. Initiate droplet precautions
Explanation: Bacterial meningitis can spread through respiratory droplets.
Protecting others through immediate infection-control measures is the priority.
Option B may help fever reduction but does not address transmission risk.
Option C is appropriate later if the client can tolerate fluids. Option D is
important but secondary to immediate safety measures.
Q4. A nurse is evaluating a client 12 hours after thyroidectomy. Which finding
requires immediate notification of the provider?
A. Hoarse voice when speaking
B. Pain rated 5/10 at the incision site
C. Small amount of sanguineous drainage on dressing
D. Serum calcium level of 8.9 mg/dL
Correct Answer: A. Hoarse voice when speaking
Explanation: Hoarseness after thyroidectomy may indicate laryngeal nerve
damage or airway edema, both of which can progress to airway compromise.
Prompt assessment is essential. Option B is expected postoperative discomfort.
Option C can occur after surgery in small amounts. Option D is within normal
range and does not indicate hypocalcemia.
Q5. A nurse is caring for a client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic
hormone secretion (SIADH). Which physician prescription should the nurse
question?
A. Fluid restriction to 1,000 mL/day
B. Daily weights
