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This document, "NR 511 CEA exam," covers various topics in nursing, including assessment of scrotal
enlargement, heart sounds, eye conditions, respiratory testing, endocrine system effects, diabetes
management, cranial nerve function, kidney damage, hypertension medication, and potential medication
toxicity. It provides 148 questions with correct answers and detailed explanations, offering a
comprehensive review of nursing concepts for exam preparation. Students can use this document to
study, review, and understand complex nursing concepts, enhancing their knowledge and confidence for
nursing exams.
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EXAM QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
A nurse is caring for a client who presents with a severely enlarged scrotum and reports working as a
powerlifter and trash collector. The nurse suspects a possible condition related to the client's
occupation and scrotal enlargement. Which diagnosis is a likely cause?
A) Hydrocele
B) Varicocele
C) Meningocele
D) Rectocele
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Varicocele
RATIONALE: A varicocele is a common diagnosis for scrotal enlargement, often caused by increased pressure on the
testicular veins, such as from heavy lifting or prolonged standing, consistent with the client's occupation and symptoms.
Hydrocele, meningocele, and rectocele are not typically related to scrotal enlargement in this context.
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, QUESTION 2
A client arrives at the emergency department with chest pain and shortness of breath. To assess the
client's heart sounds, which location is commonly used to identify the point of maximum impulse in a
healthy adult?
A) Left 2nd intercostal space, midaxillary line
B) Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
C) Right 4th intercostal space, midaxillary line
D) Right 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Left 5th intercostal space, midclavicular line
RATIONALE: In a healthy adult, the point of maximum impulse (PMI) is usually palpable in the left 5th intercostal space,
midclavicular line. This location is often used as a reference point to assess heart sounds and detect any abnormalities.
Options A, C, and D are incorrect locations for assessing the PMI in a healthy adult.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause significant exophthalmos, as evidenced by
bulging of the eyes and a distinctive stare?
A) Hypothyroidism-induced myxedema
B) Graves' disease
C) Bilateral conjunctivitis
D) Thyroiditis
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Graves' disease
RATIONALE: Graves' disease is a hyperthyroid condition that can lead to exophthalmos due to increased muscle activity
and inflammation behind the eye. The correct answer, B) Graves' disease, is the most likely cause of exophthalmos.
Options A) Hypothyroidism-induced myxedema, C) Bilateral conjunctivitis, and D) Thyroiditis are incorrect because they
are not directly associated with exophthalmos.
QUESTION 4
The nurse is assessing a patient who underwent a pulmonary function test (PFT) with spirometry to
evaluate suspected chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The patient asks what the test
was measuring. Which of the following describes the measurement of maximum air volume expired
after a full inspiration and exhalation?
A) Forced Expiratory Volume over 1 second (FEV1)
B) Functional Reserve Capacity
C) Inspiratory Reserve
D) Forced Vital Capacity
CORRECT ANSWER
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, D) Forced Vital Capacity
RATIONALE: The nurse can explain that the PFT measured the Forced Vital Capacity (FVC), which is the maximum
volume of air that can be exhaled after a maximum inspiration. This measurement is a key indicator of lung function
and can help diagnose COPD. Options A, B, and C are related to lung function, but they do not accurately describe the
measurement of maximum air volume expired.
QUESTION 5
A patient has a prescription for hydrocortisone, and the nurse needs to assess for potential long-term
effects of Addison's disease. Which physical finding is most likely associated with this chronic
condition?
A) Abdominal distension
B) Dowager hump (osteoporosis)
C) Thin, fragile skin
D) Wasting of the muscles
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Dowager hump (osteoporosis)
RATIONALE: The correct answer is B because Addison's disease can lead to osteoporosis, often characterized by a
hunched back, or dowager hump. This condition results from decreased cortisol levels, which affects bone density.
Options A and C are incorrect as they are not directly associated with Addison's disease, and option D is also incorrect
because wasting of the muscles is typically seen in conditions with cortisol excess, not deficiency.
QUESTION 6
What is the purpose of the nurse's assessment when evaluating a patient with Diabetes Mellitus type
2 for end organ dysfunction?
A) To identify laboratory findings only
B) To perform a dilated eye exam only
C) To assess renal function and urine output
D) To obtain a comprehensive history only
CORRECT ANSWER
D) To obtain a comprehensive history only
RATIONALE: Evaluating a patient with Diabetes Mellitus type 2 for end organ dysfunction requires assessing the
progression of the disease to its complications, such as renal impairment, retinopathy, and nephropathy. This involves
analyzing laboratory findings, such as a renal function panel and urinalysis, as well as performing non-dilated eye exams
to evaluate for retinopathy. A comprehensive history is also essential to identify potential risk factors.
QUESTION 7
The nurse receives report on four clients, including a 19-year-old college student with a history of
angioedema. Based on her knowledge, which areas of the body are likely to be involved in this
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, condition?
A) The gastrointestinal tract, including the mouth, esophagus, and rectum
B) The upper respiratory tract, including the nose, throat, and lungs
C) The cardiovascular system, including the heart and blood vessels
D) The skin and mucous membranes of the face and lips
CORRECT ANSWER
D) The skin and mucous membranes of the face and lips
RATIONALE: Angioedema is a condition involving swelling of the skin and mucous membranes. In this case, the
patient's history suggests that the face and lips are likely to be involved, as these areas are commonly affected in
patients with angioedema. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as these areas are not typically associated with
angioedema.
QUESTION 8
A nurse should identify that which skin lesion is often a precursor to skin cancer due to prolonged
exposure to UV-B radiation.
A) Psoriasis
B) Basal cell carcinoma
C) Actinic Keratosis
D) Eczema
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Actinic Keratosis
RATIONALE: Actinic Keratosis is a skin lesion that can develop into skin cancer, particularly due to prolonged exposure
to UV-B radiation from the sun or tanning beds. This condition requires regular monitoring and prompt treatment to
prevent skin cancer. The other options are skin conditions not directly associated with skin cancer from UV-B exposure.
QUESTION 9
A client reports a new mole on her arm, which she noticed has irregular borders. During the
assessment, you also notice that the client's mole is slightly raised. As you evaluate the mole, which of
the following characteristics would you identify as a suspicious finding?
A) Round shape
B) Brown color
C) Diameter of 0.5 cm
D) Irregular borders
CORRECT ANSWER
D) Irregular borders
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