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This document, "Therapist Multiple-Choice (TMC) Exam," covers specific topics in respiratory care,
including signs of fluid overload, chest trauma, postural drainage therapy, ventilator care, and tension
pneumothorax. It provides 138 questions with correct answers and detailed explanations, allowing
students to review and understand key concepts in respiratory care, standardize evidence-based care
practices, and prepare for exams. By using this document, students can effectively study, review, and
solidify their knowledge of respiratory care therapies and interventions, ultimately enhancing their
understanding and clinical skills.
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EXAM QUESTIONS
QUESTION 1
Which of the following best describes the clinical presentation of a 48-year-old female presenting
with signs of fluid overload, including diaphoresis, jugular venous distension, and pitting edema in the
ankles?
A) Acute kidney injury
B) Chronic respiratory disease
C) Cardiac dysfunction leading to congestive heart failure
D) Electrolyte imbalance
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Cardiac dysfunction leading to congestive heart failure
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, RATIONALE: Congestive heart failure is characterized by fluid overload due to an inability of the heart to pump blood
effectively, leading to signs such as diaphoresis, jugular venous distension, and pitting edema. The other options are
incorrect as they do not directly relate to fluid overload and cardiac dysfunction.
QUESTION 2
What is the primary purpose of initial respiratory intervention for a patient experiencing chest trauma
with symptoms of absent breath sounds, a hyperresonant percussion note, and tracheal deviation?
A) Administering oxygen therapy to stabilize vital signs
B) Inserting a chest tube to relieve tension pneumothorax
C) Performing needle aspiration to decompress the thoracic cavity
D) Calling for a STAT chest x-ray to confirm diagnosis
CORRECT ANSWER
C) Performing needle aspiration to decompress the thoracic cavity
RATIONALE: Needle aspiration is the primary purpose of initial respiratory intervention to promptly decompress the
thoracic cavity, relieving pressure and stabilizing the patient's respiratory status. Administering oxygen therapy and
inserting a chest tube are secondary interventions, while calling for a STAT chest x-ray may delay treatment,
compromising patient outcomes.
QUESTION 3
A candidate should identify that which of the following strategies would NOT serve as an effective
measure to minimize tracheal mucosa damage during intubation.
A) Employing a cuff pressure monitoring system that sets a low-pressure threshold.
B) Utilizing the 'minimal leak' inflation technique for cuff filling.
C) Selecting an endotracheal tube with a low-residual-volume, low-compliance cuff.
D) Constantly adjusting and monitoring cuff pressures within the recommended range.
CORRECT ANSWER
A) Employing a cuff pressure monitoring system that sets a low-pressure threshold.
RATIONALE: Employing a cuff pressure monitoring system set to a low-pressure threshold may inadvertently contribute
to decreased cuff pressures, thereby increasing the likelihood of tracheal mucosa damage. In contrast, utilizing the
'minimal leak' inflation technique, selecting a tube with a low-residual-volume cuff, and monitoring cuff pressures within
a recommended range are all established practices that prioritize tracheal mucosa protection.
QUESTION 4
Which of the following is a characteristic of effective postural drainage therapy for a post-operative
patient with compromised respiratory function?
A) Continuing therapy until breath sounds worsen.
B) Administering a mucolytic agent to enhance drainage.
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, C) Implementing bronchodilator therapy to facilitate airway clearance.
D) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing to clear respiratory secretions.
CORRECT ANSWER
D) Encouraging deep breathing and coughing to clear respiratory secretions.
RATIONALE: Effective postural drainage therapy for a post-operative patient with compromised respiratory function
involves encouraging deep breathing and coughing to clear respiratory secretions. This promotes airway clearance and
prevents complications. Option D is the correct answer. Options A and C are incorrect as they may exacerbate the
patient's respiratory compromise. Option B, while related to respiratory management, is not directly relevant to postural
drainage therapy.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is an example of a control that can be adjusted to increase expiratory time in a
patient on ventilator care (VC) ventilation displaying auto-PEEP on ventilator graphics?
A) Adjusting the peak inspiratory flow rate
B) Reducing the tidal volume
C) Decreasing the respiratory rate
D) Increasing the inspiratory time
CORRECT ANSWER
B) Reducing the tidal volume
RATIONALE: Increasing the tidal volume, reducing the respiratory rate, and decreasing the peak inspiratory flow rate
can all contribute to increasing expiratory time in a patient with auto-PEEP. This can help alleviate the negative
consequences of auto-PEEP, including increased workload on the respiratory muscles and potential damage to lung
tissue.
QUESTION 6
A professional should recognize that a patient presenting with crepitus, tracheal deviation to the left,
and absent breath sounds on the right requires immediate intervention to address potential
complications related to respiratory distress.
A) Administering IPPB treatment to alleviate respiratory fatigue
B) Inserting an endotracheal tube for emergency airway management
C) Performing chest physiotherapy to improve lung expansion
D) Inserting a chest tube to relieve tension pneumothorax
CORRECT ANSWER
D) Inserting a chest tube to relieve tension pneumothorax
RATIONALE: A chest tube is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected tension pneumothorax, as
it allows for the removal of air from the thoracic cavity and restoration of lung expansion. IPPB treatment, endotracheal
tube insertion, and chest physiotherapy are not directly addressing the immediate cause of respiratory distress in this
scenario.
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, QUESTION 7
A critically ill post-cardiac surgery patient's venous blood gas results indicate a pH of 7.39, PvCO2 43
torr, and SvO2 66%. Based on these values, which of the following correctly explains the patient's
calculated C(a-v)O2?
A) 1.5 vol%
B) 4.5 vol%
C) 5.0 vol%
D) 6.0 vol%
CORRECT ANSWER
C) 5.0 vol%
RATIONALE: To calculate C(a-v)O2, we use the formula: C(a-v)O2 = (CaO2 - CvO2). Given the patient's SvO2 of 66%,
we can calculate CvO2 as a proportion of CaO2. The difference between CaO2 and CvO2 yields the C(a-v)O2 value. In
this case, the calculated C(a-v)O2 is 5.0 vol%. Options A and D are incorrect as they underestimate and overestimate
the value, respectively. Option B is also incorrect, as it is close but not the exact calculated value.
QUESTION 8
What is the relationship between static lung compliance and the difference between plateau pressure
and peak inspiratory pressure in a patient receiving ventilatory support with a volume-controlled
mode?
A) Directly proportional to the peak inspiratory pressure minus the plateau pressure
B) Inversely related to the peak inspiratory pressure minus the plateau pressure
C) Proportional to the volume of ventilation multiplied by the difference between peak inspiratory
pressure and plateau pressure
D) Equal to the volume of ventilation divided by the difference between peak inspiratory pressure and
plateau pressure
CORRECT ANSWER
D) Equal to the volume of ventilation divided by the difference between peak inspiratory pressure and
plateau pressure
RATIONALE: Static lung compliance is calculated by dividing the tidal volume by the difference between plateau
pressure and peak inspiratory pressure. In this scenario, the correct answer reflects the correct formula for calculating
compliance, while the distractors present plausible but incorrect relationships between compliance and the pressures
involved.
QUESTION 9
Which of the following is true regarding the management of respiratory distress immediately after
extubation in an ICU setting?
A) Administering aerosolized racemic epinephrine for bronchodilation
B) Providing manual ventilation with a resuscitation bag and mask
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