NR302 HEALTH ASSESSMENT EXAM 3 Actual
Exam 2026/2027 | Official Exam – Complete
Q&A with Rationales – Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Neurologic Assessment | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Cranial Nerves and Motor Function | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Sensory and Reflex Testing | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Mental Status and Speech | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Head, Neck, and Associated Lymphatics | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
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SECTION 1: NEUROLOGIC ASSESSMENT Q1 – Q10
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Question 1 of 50
A 58-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter, who
noticed the patient had difficulty finding words and seemed confused when asked about
recent events. During the neurologic assessment, the nurse tests the patient's
orientation to time, place, and person. The patient correctly states her name and city but
believes the year is 2018 rather than 2026.
A. Aphasia from dominant hemisphere stroke
B. Impaired orientation to time, suggesting possible delirium or cognitive dysfunction ✓
CORRECT
C. Normal aging-related memory decline
D. Psychiatric disorder causing confabulation
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Impaired orientation to time in a patient who otherwise knows person and
place suggests acute or chronic cognitive dysfunction rather than isolated memory
issues. Option A incorrectly attributes the finding to aphasia, which affects language
production or comprehension rather than orientation. Assessing orientation is typically
the first step in any neurologic or mental status examination because it provides
immediate insight into overall cognitive function.
Question 2 of 50
A 45-year-old construction worker presents after a fall from scaffolding. He denies loss
of consciousness but reports a severe headache and neck stiffness. During the
neurologic examination, the nurse prepares to assess for meningeal irritation and
recalls that a positive Brudzinski sign is characterized by:
A. Resistance and pain when the chin is flexed toward the chest
B. Flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is passively flexed ✓ CORRECT
C. Pain radiating down the leg when the straight leg is raised
D. Nuchal rigidity with passive rotation of the head
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Brudzinski sign is positive when passive flexion of the neck causes
involuntary flexion of the hips and knees, indicating meningeal irritation. Option A
describes the mechanics of testing neck flexion rather than the specific reflexive
response that defines a positive sign. Meningeal signs are critical to assess in any
patient with headache and trauma because they may indicate subarachnoid
hemorrhage or meningitis even without fever.
Question 3 of 50
A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation is being assessed after a witnessed
fall at home. His wife states he seemed confused for about 10 minutes after the fall.
During the neurologic exam, the nurse assesses the patient's gait by asking him to walk
,heel-to-toe in a straight line. The patient is unable to maintain balance and steps to the
side repeatedly.
A. Ataxia, possibly from cerebellar dysfunction or posterior circulation involvement ✓
CORRECT
B. Normal age-related gait instability
C. Parkinsonian rigidity affecting ambulation
D. Peripheral neuropathy causing foot drop
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inability to perform tandem gait with lateral deviation indicates ataxia, which
in a patient with atrial fibrillation raises immediate concern for cerebellar stroke or
posterior circulation ischemia. Option B incorrectly normalizes a finding that represents
new post-event neurologic dysfunction rather than baseline aging. Tandem gait testing
is highly sensitive for subtle coordination deficits and is often performed before formal
cerebellar testing because it integrates multiple pathways.
Question 4 of 50
A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic reporting episodes of tingling in her fingers
and occasional visual disturbances. During the neurologic assessment, the nurse tests
cranial nerve II by performing the confrontation visual field test. The patient fails to see
the examiner's fingers in the temporal visual field of both eyes.
A. Optic neuritis from multiple sclerosis
B. Homonymous hemianopsia from occipital lobe stroke
C. Central scotoma from macular degeneration
D. Bitemporal hemianopsia, suggesting a lesion at the optic chiasm ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loss of the temporal visual fields in both eyes localizes to the optic chiasm,
where nasal retinal fibers from each eye cross and are vulnerable to compression by
pituitary masses. Option B would produce visual field loss on the same side in both eyes
, rather than bilateral temporal loss. Bitemporal hemianopsia is a classic
neuro-ophthalmologic finding that mandates urgent neuroimaging to evaluate for
chiasmal compression.
Question 5 of 50
A 19-year-old college athlete is evaluated in the training room after taking a
helmet-to-helmet hit during football practice. He is alert and oriented but complains of a
headache and sensitivity to light. The nurse performs a focused neurologic examination
and uses the Glasgow Coma Scale. The patient opens his eyes to verbal command, is
confused in conversation, and obeys commands for motor tasks.
A. 12
B. 13 ✓ CORRECT
C. 14
D. 15
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opening eyes to speech yields 3 points, confused conversation yields 4
points, and obeying motor commands yields 6 points, for a total GCS of 13. Option C
overestimates the score by confusing confused speech with oriented conversation,
which would be a verbal score of 5. GCS scoring is standardized across trauma centers,
and accurate calculation is essential for triage decisions and monitoring neurologic
deterioration.
Question 6 of 50
A 50-year-old woman with a history of migraines presents with a severe headache that
she describes as "the worst of my life." During the neurologic exam, the nurse assesses
pupillary responses. The patient's right pupil is 6 mm, the left is 3 mm, and the right
pupil does not constrict to light directly or consensually.
Exam 2026/2027 | Official Exam – Complete
Q&A with Rationales – Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Neurologic Assessment | Q1 – Q10
Section 2 | Cranial Nerves and Motor Function | Q11 – Q20
Section 3 | Sensory and Reflex Testing | Q21 – Q30
Section 4 | Mental Status and Speech | Q31 – Q40
Section 5 | Head, Neck, and Associated Lymphatics | Q41 – Q50
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: 80% in 90 minutes.
══════════════════════════════════════
SECTION 1: NEUROLOGIC ASSESSMENT Q1 – Q10
══════════════════════════════════════
Question 1 of 50
A 58-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by her daughter, who
noticed the patient had difficulty finding words and seemed confused when asked about
recent events. During the neurologic assessment, the nurse tests the patient's
orientation to time, place, and person. The patient correctly states her name and city but
believes the year is 2018 rather than 2026.
A. Aphasia from dominant hemisphere stroke
B. Impaired orientation to time, suggesting possible delirium or cognitive dysfunction ✓
CORRECT
C. Normal aging-related memory decline
D. Psychiatric disorder causing confabulation
Correct Answer: B
,Rationale: Impaired orientation to time in a patient who otherwise knows person and
place suggests acute or chronic cognitive dysfunction rather than isolated memory
issues. Option A incorrectly attributes the finding to aphasia, which affects language
production or comprehension rather than orientation. Assessing orientation is typically
the first step in any neurologic or mental status examination because it provides
immediate insight into overall cognitive function.
Question 2 of 50
A 45-year-old construction worker presents after a fall from scaffolding. He denies loss
of consciousness but reports a severe headache and neck stiffness. During the
neurologic examination, the nurse prepares to assess for meningeal irritation and
recalls that a positive Brudzinski sign is characterized by:
A. Resistance and pain when the chin is flexed toward the chest
B. Flexion of the hips and knees when the neck is passively flexed ✓ CORRECT
C. Pain radiating down the leg when the straight leg is raised
D. Nuchal rigidity with passive rotation of the head
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Brudzinski sign is positive when passive flexion of the neck causes
involuntary flexion of the hips and knees, indicating meningeal irritation. Option A
describes the mechanics of testing neck flexion rather than the specific reflexive
response that defines a positive sign. Meningeal signs are critical to assess in any
patient with headache and trauma because they may indicate subarachnoid
hemorrhage or meningitis even without fever.
Question 3 of 50
A 72-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation is being assessed after a witnessed
fall at home. His wife states he seemed confused for about 10 minutes after the fall.
During the neurologic exam, the nurse assesses the patient's gait by asking him to walk
,heel-to-toe in a straight line. The patient is unable to maintain balance and steps to the
side repeatedly.
A. Ataxia, possibly from cerebellar dysfunction or posterior circulation involvement ✓
CORRECT
B. Normal age-related gait instability
C. Parkinsonian rigidity affecting ambulation
D. Peripheral neuropathy causing foot drop
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inability to perform tandem gait with lateral deviation indicates ataxia, which
in a patient with atrial fibrillation raises immediate concern for cerebellar stroke or
posterior circulation ischemia. Option B incorrectly normalizes a finding that represents
new post-event neurologic dysfunction rather than baseline aging. Tandem gait testing
is highly sensitive for subtle coordination deficits and is often performed before formal
cerebellar testing because it integrates multiple pathways.
Question 4 of 50
A 34-year-old woman presents to the clinic reporting episodes of tingling in her fingers
and occasional visual disturbances. During the neurologic assessment, the nurse tests
cranial nerve II by performing the confrontation visual field test. The patient fails to see
the examiner's fingers in the temporal visual field of both eyes.
A. Optic neuritis from multiple sclerosis
B. Homonymous hemianopsia from occipital lobe stroke
C. Central scotoma from macular degeneration
D. Bitemporal hemianopsia, suggesting a lesion at the optic chiasm ✓ CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Loss of the temporal visual fields in both eyes localizes to the optic chiasm,
where nasal retinal fibers from each eye cross and are vulnerable to compression by
pituitary masses. Option B would produce visual field loss on the same side in both eyes
, rather than bilateral temporal loss. Bitemporal hemianopsia is a classic
neuro-ophthalmologic finding that mandates urgent neuroimaging to evaluate for
chiasmal compression.
Question 5 of 50
A 19-year-old college athlete is evaluated in the training room after taking a
helmet-to-helmet hit during football practice. He is alert and oriented but complains of a
headache and sensitivity to light. The nurse performs a focused neurologic examination
and uses the Glasgow Coma Scale. The patient opens his eyes to verbal command, is
confused in conversation, and obeys commands for motor tasks.
A. 12
B. 13 ✓ CORRECT
C. 14
D. 15
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Opening eyes to speech yields 3 points, confused conversation yields 4
points, and obeying motor commands yields 6 points, for a total GCS of 13. Option C
overestimates the score by confusing confused speech with oriented conversation,
which would be a verbal score of 5. GCS scoring is standardized across trauma centers,
and accurate calculation is essential for triage decisions and monitoring neurologic
deterioration.
Question 6 of 50
A 50-year-old woman with a history of migraines presents with a severe headache that
she describes as "the worst of my life." During the neurologic exam, the nurse assesses
pupillary responses. The patient's right pupil is 6 mm, the left is 3 mm, and the right
pupil does not constrict to light directly or consensually.
