ATI PN MATERNAL NEWBORN FINAL EXAM 2026/2027 |
Actual Questions & Verified Answers with Rationales | ATI
CMS Blueprint | NCLEX-PN Aligned | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care - Prenatal Assessment, Fetal Development,
High-Risk Pregnancy (Questions 1-25)
Q1. A client at 8 weeks gestation reports nausea, breast tenderness, urinary frequency,
and fatigue. The nurse recognizes these findings as which category of pregnancy signs?
A. Probable signs
B. Positive signs
C. Presumptive signs [CORRECT]
D. Objective signs
Rationale: Presumptive signs of pregnancy are subjective symptoms reported by the
client, including nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency; probable
signs are objective (e.g., Hegar's sign, positive pregnancy test), and positive signs
confirm pregnancy (e.g., fetal heartbeat, ultrasound visualization).
Correct Answer: C
Q2. A client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule,
what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. December 3
B. December 10
C. December 17 [CORRECT]
D. January 7
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates EDD by subtracting 3 months from the LMP and
adding 7 days; March 10 minus 3 months equals December 10, plus 7 days equals
December 17.
,Correct Answer: C
Q3. A client is pregnant for the fourth time. She delivered one infant at 39 weeks, one at
34 weeks, and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks. She has two living children.
How should the nurse document her obstetric history using the GTPAL system?
A. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2 [CORRECT]
B. G4 T2 P0 A1 L2
C. G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
D. G4 T1 P1 A2 L2
Rationale: GTPAL documentation for this client is Gravida 4 (four pregnancies including
current), Term 1 (one delivery ≥37 weeks), Preterm 1 (one delivery 20-36.6 weeks),
Abortion 1 (one pregnancy ending before 20 weeks), Living 2 (two living children).
Correct Answer: A
Q4. During a routine prenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's
fundal height at 26 cm. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Immediately schedule a biophysical profile
B. Document the finding as within expected range [CORRECT]
C. Notify the provider of suspected intrauterine growth restriction
D. Prepare the client for emergent delivery
Rationale: McDonald's rule states fundal height in centimeters should equal weeks of
gestation plus or minus 2 cm after 20 weeks; 26 cm at 28 weeks falls within the
expected 26-30 cm range and requires routine documentation.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. The nurse is caring for four antepartum clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client at 32 weeks with mild ankle edema
B. A client at 24 weeks reporting occasional Braxton Hicks contractions
C. A client at 36 weeks with painless bright red vaginal bleeding [CORRECT]
D. A client at 16 weeks with mild nausea and vomiting
,Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the classic
presentation of placenta previa, a potentially catastrophic hemorrhage requiring
immediate assessment; the nurse must prioritize the unstable client over stable
complaints.
Correct Answer: C
Q6. Which prenatal visit schedule is appropriate for a client with an uncomplicated
pregnancy during the second trimester?
A. Every 2 weeks from 12-28 weeks
B. Every 4 weeks from 12-28 weeks [CORRECT]
C. Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks
D. Weekly from 36 weeks until delivery
Rationale: For an uncomplicated pregnancy, prenatal visits occur every 4 weeks until 28
weeks gestation (first and second trimesters), then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and
weekly thereafter until delivery.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. A client at 18 weeks gestation asks about the purpose of the maternal serum quad
screen. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "It diagnoses Down syndrome with 100% accuracy."
B. "It screens for trisomy 21, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects." [CORRECT]
C. "It is performed between 11 and 13 weeks gestation."
D. "It requires amniocentesis for all positive results."
Rationale: The quad screen (AFP, hCG, estriol, inhibin A) performed at 15-20 weeks
screens for trisomy 21, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects; it is a screening test, not
diagnostic, and abnormal results may lead to diagnostic testing options.
Correct Answer: B
Q8. Which task is appropriate for the LPN to perform in the antepartum clinic under the
supervision of the RN?
, A. Perform the initial sterile vaginal exam to assess cervical change
B. Titrate the oxytocin infusion for labor augmentation
C. Reinforce breastfeeding teaching after the RN has completed initial education
[CORRECT]
D. Independently interpret category II fetal heart rate tracings
Rationale: LPN scope in maternal-newborn settings includes reinforcing teaching after
RN initial assessment and education; LPNs cannot independently perform sterile
vaginal exams, titrate oxytocin, or interpret FHR category classifications.
Correct Answer: C
Q9. A client asks about non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) at 12 weeks gestation.
Which information should the nurse include?
A. NIPT requires chorionic villus sampling for confirmation
B. NIPT detects trisomy 21, 18, 13, sex chromosome aneuploidies, and fetal sex
[CORRECT]
C. NIPT can only be performed between 15 and 20 weeks
D. NIPT has a high false-positive rate and is not reliable
Rationale: Cell-free fetal DNA (NIPT) is a non-invasive blood test that detects trisomy
21, 18, 13, sex chromosome aneuploidies, and fetal sex with high sensitivity; it does not
require invasive confirmation for all positives and can be performed in the first
trimester.
Correct Answer: B
Q10. A client at 11 weeks gestation with a family history of cystic fibrosis requests
diagnostic testing. Which test should the nurse anticipate the provider will discuss?
A. Amniocentesis at 15-20 weeks
B. Quad screen at 16 weeks
C. Chorionic villus sampling at 10-13 weeks [CORRECT]
D. Nuchal translucency ultrasound at 11-13 weeks
Actual Questions & Verified Answers with Rationales | ATI
CMS Blueprint | NCLEX-PN Aligned | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Section 1: Antepartum Nursing Care - Prenatal Assessment, Fetal Development,
High-Risk Pregnancy (Questions 1-25)
Q1. A client at 8 weeks gestation reports nausea, breast tenderness, urinary frequency,
and fatigue. The nurse recognizes these findings as which category of pregnancy signs?
A. Probable signs
B. Positive signs
C. Presumptive signs [CORRECT]
D. Objective signs
Rationale: Presumptive signs of pregnancy are subjective symptoms reported by the
client, including nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and urinary frequency; probable
signs are objective (e.g., Hegar's sign, positive pregnancy test), and positive signs
confirm pregnancy (e.g., fetal heartbeat, ultrasound visualization).
Correct Answer: C
Q2. A client's last menstrual period (LMP) began on March 10. Using Naegele's rule,
what is the estimated date of delivery (EDD)?
A. December 3
B. December 10
C. December 17 [CORRECT]
D. January 7
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates EDD by subtracting 3 months from the LMP and
adding 7 days; March 10 minus 3 months equals December 10, plus 7 days equals
December 17.
,Correct Answer: C
Q3. A client is pregnant for the fourth time. She delivered one infant at 39 weeks, one at
34 weeks, and had one spontaneous abortion at 10 weeks. She has two living children.
How should the nurse document her obstetric history using the GTPAL system?
A. G4 T1 P1 A1 L2 [CORRECT]
B. G4 T2 P0 A1 L2
C. G3 T1 P1 A1 L2
D. G4 T1 P1 A2 L2
Rationale: GTPAL documentation for this client is Gravida 4 (four pregnancies including
current), Term 1 (one delivery ≥37 weeks), Preterm 1 (one delivery 20-36.6 weeks),
Abortion 1 (one pregnancy ending before 20 weeks), Living 2 (two living children).
Correct Answer: A
Q4. During a routine prenatal visit at 28 weeks gestation, the nurse measures the client's
fundal height at 26 cm. Which action is most appropriate?
A. Immediately schedule a biophysical profile
B. Document the finding as within expected range [CORRECT]
C. Notify the provider of suspected intrauterine growth restriction
D. Prepare the client for emergent delivery
Rationale: McDonald's rule states fundal height in centimeters should equal weeks of
gestation plus or minus 2 cm after 20 weeks; 26 cm at 28 weeks falls within the
expected 26-30 cm range and requires routine documentation.
Correct Answer: B
Q5. The nurse is caring for four antepartum clients. Which client should the nurse
assess first?
A. A client at 32 weeks with mild ankle edema
B. A client at 24 weeks reporting occasional Braxton Hicks contractions
C. A client at 36 weeks with painless bright red vaginal bleeding [CORRECT]
D. A client at 16 weeks with mild nausea and vomiting
,Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the classic
presentation of placenta previa, a potentially catastrophic hemorrhage requiring
immediate assessment; the nurse must prioritize the unstable client over stable
complaints.
Correct Answer: C
Q6. Which prenatal visit schedule is appropriate for a client with an uncomplicated
pregnancy during the second trimester?
A. Every 2 weeks from 12-28 weeks
B. Every 4 weeks from 12-28 weeks [CORRECT]
C. Every 2 weeks from 28-36 weeks
D. Weekly from 36 weeks until delivery
Rationale: For an uncomplicated pregnancy, prenatal visits occur every 4 weeks until 28
weeks gestation (first and second trimesters), then every 2 weeks until 36 weeks, and
weekly thereafter until delivery.
Correct Answer: B
Q7. A client at 18 weeks gestation asks about the purpose of the maternal serum quad
screen. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "It diagnoses Down syndrome with 100% accuracy."
B. "It screens for trisomy 21, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects." [CORRECT]
C. "It is performed between 11 and 13 weeks gestation."
D. "It requires amniocentesis for all positive results."
Rationale: The quad screen (AFP, hCG, estriol, inhibin A) performed at 15-20 weeks
screens for trisomy 21, trisomy 18, and neural tube defects; it is a screening test, not
diagnostic, and abnormal results may lead to diagnostic testing options.
Correct Answer: B
Q8. Which task is appropriate for the LPN to perform in the antepartum clinic under the
supervision of the RN?
, A. Perform the initial sterile vaginal exam to assess cervical change
B. Titrate the oxytocin infusion for labor augmentation
C. Reinforce breastfeeding teaching after the RN has completed initial education
[CORRECT]
D. Independently interpret category II fetal heart rate tracings
Rationale: LPN scope in maternal-newborn settings includes reinforcing teaching after
RN initial assessment and education; LPNs cannot independently perform sterile
vaginal exams, titrate oxytocin, or interpret FHR category classifications.
Correct Answer: C
Q9. A client asks about non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) at 12 weeks gestation.
Which information should the nurse include?
A. NIPT requires chorionic villus sampling for confirmation
B. NIPT detects trisomy 21, 18, 13, sex chromosome aneuploidies, and fetal sex
[CORRECT]
C. NIPT can only be performed between 15 and 20 weeks
D. NIPT has a high false-positive rate and is not reliable
Rationale: Cell-free fetal DNA (NIPT) is a non-invasive blood test that detects trisomy
21, 18, 13, sex chromosome aneuploidies, and fetal sex with high sensitivity; it does not
require invasive confirmation for all positives and can be performed in the first
trimester.
Correct Answer: B
Q10. A client at 11 weeks gestation with a family history of cystic fibrosis requests
diagnostic testing. Which test should the nurse anticipate the provider will discuss?
A. Amniocentesis at 15-20 weeks
B. Quad screen at 16 weeks
C. Chorionic villus sampling at 10-13 weeks [CORRECT]
D. Nuchal translucency ultrasound at 11-13 weeks
