ATI PN MATERNAL NEWBORN CMS FINAL EXAM
2026/2027 | Actual Exam Complete Question Bank |
Verified Solutions | ATI CMS Blueprint | NCLEX-PN
Aligned | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum - Prenatal Care, Fetal Development,
Genetics, High-Risk Conditions (Questions 1-25)
Q1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she should first
expect to feel fetal movement. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "You may feel quickening as early as 12 weeks."
B. "First-time mothers usually feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
C. "Fetal movement is typically felt by the examiner at 28 weeks."
D. "You should feel consistent daily movement starting at 14 weeks."
B. "First-time mothers usually feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks." [CORRECT]
Rationale: Quickening occurs at 18-20 weeks for nulliparas and 16-18 weeks for
multiparas; this is a positive sign of pregnancy when felt by the examiner. ATI PN
Maternal Newborn content and NCLEX-PN Test Plan identify fetal movement felt by
the pregnant woman as a presumptive sign, while movement felt by the examiner is
a positive sign.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results for a client at 24 weeks gestation.
Which result requires immediate follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B. 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test 152 mg/dL
,C. Rubella titer non-immune
D. Blood type O positive
B. 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test 152 mg/dL [CORRECT]
Rationale: A glucose challenge test result ≥130-140 mg/dL (depending on lab
threshold) requires a diagnostic 3-hour 100g OGTT to rule out gestational diabetes
mellitus (GDM), a high-risk condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent
macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia. ATI CMS blueprint prioritizes abnormal
screening values requiring immediate diagnostic confirmation.
Correct Answer: B
Q3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum who has been
admitted for dehydration. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer antiemetics before initiating oral intake
B. Initiate IV fluids with thiamine prior to dextrose-containing fluids
C. Start enteral nutrition via nasogastric tube
D. Obtain a serum hCG level to confirm pregnancy
B. Initiate IV fluids with thiamine prior to dextrose-containing fluids [CORRECT]
Rationale: Thiamine 100mg in 100mL NS over 30 minutes must precede dextrose
administration to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy; hyperemesis gravidarum
causes dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and ketosis requiring IV fluid
resuscitation per ATI and evidence-based practice.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A client at 35 weeks gestation reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The
nurse suspects placenta previa. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
B. Prepare the client for an immediate vaginal delivery
,C. Place the client on pelvic rest and prepare for ultrasound
D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor
C. Place the client on pelvic rest and prepare for ultrasound [CORRECT]
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless bright red bleeding in the third
trimester; pelvic rest (no intercourse, no vaginal exams, no speculum) prevents
catastrophic hemorrhage, and transabdominal/transvaginal ultrasound confirms
diagnosis. ATI CMS emphasizes that digital cervical exams are contraindicated in
suspected previa.
Correct Answer: C
Q5. A client at 28 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and unsensitized. The nurse
anticipates which intervention?
A. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM within 72 hours postpartum only
B. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery if
infant is Rh-positive
C. Schedule amniocentesis to assess for fetal anemia
D. Administer RhoGAM only if the client experiences vaginal bleeding
B. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery if
infant is Rh-positive [CORRECT]
Rationale: Unsensitized Rh-negative clients receive RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks
gestation and within 72 hours postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive to prevent
isoimmunization and hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn. ATI PN content and
ACOG guidelines support this standard prophylaxis.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the signs of pregnancy. Which
finding does the nurse correctly identify as a positive sign?
, A. Amenorrhea
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Fetal heartbeat detected by Doppler at 12 weeks
D. Nausea and vomiting
C. Fetal heartbeat detected by Doppler at 12 weeks [CORRECT]
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy include fetal heartbeat by Doppler (10-12
weeks) or fetoscope (18-20 weeks), fetal movement felt by the examiner (18-20
weeks), and ultrasound visualization; presumptive signs include amenorrhea and
nausea, while probable signs include Chadwick's sign. ATI CMS distinguishes these
categories for NCLEX-PN success.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. A client with gestational diabetes asks the nurse about dietary recommendations.
Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A. "Eat three large meals daily to maintain glucose levels."
B. "Consume small frequent meals with 2-3 snacks daily."
C. "Choose complex carbohydrates and increase fiber intake."
D. "Monitor fasting glucose to remain below 95 mg/dL."
E. "Avoid all carbohydrates to prevent hyperglycemia."
B. "Consume small frequent meals with 2-3 snacks daily." [CORRECT]
C. "Choose complex carbohydrates and increase fiber intake." [CORRECT]
D. "Monitor fasting glucose to remain below 95 mg/dL." [CORRECT]
Rationale: GDM management includes medical nutrition therapy with small frequent
meals (3 meals + 2-3 snacks), complex carbohydrates, fiber, protein, and healthy fats;
target fasting glucose is <95 mg/dL, 1-hour postprandial <140 mg/dL, and 2-hour
postprandial <120 mg/dL. ATI and ADA guidelines support carbohydrate counting,
not carbohydrate elimination.
Correct Answer: B, C, D
2026/2027 | Actual Exam Complete Question Bank |
Verified Solutions | ATI CMS Blueprint | NCLEX-PN
Aligned | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
Section 1: Antepartum - Prenatal Care, Fetal Development,
Genetics, High-Risk Conditions (Questions 1-25)
Q1. A pregnant client at 10 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she should first
expect to feel fetal movement. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "You may feel quickening as early as 12 weeks."
B. "First-time mothers usually feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks."
C. "Fetal movement is typically felt by the examiner at 28 weeks."
D. "You should feel consistent daily movement starting at 14 weeks."
B. "First-time mothers usually feel movement between 18 and 20 weeks." [CORRECT]
Rationale: Quickening occurs at 18-20 weeks for nulliparas and 16-18 weeks for
multiparas; this is a positive sign of pregnancy when felt by the examiner. ATI PN
Maternal Newborn content and NCLEX-PN Test Plan identify fetal movement felt by
the pregnant woman as a presumptive sign, while movement felt by the examiner is
a positive sign.
Correct Answer: B
Q2. A nurse is reviewing prenatal laboratory results for a client at 24 weeks gestation.
Which result requires immediate follow-up?
A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B. 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test 152 mg/dL
,C. Rubella titer non-immune
D. Blood type O positive
B. 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test 152 mg/dL [CORRECT]
Rationale: A glucose challenge test result ≥130-140 mg/dL (depending on lab
threshold) requires a diagnostic 3-hour 100g OGTT to rule out gestational diabetes
mellitus (GDM), a high-risk condition requiring immediate intervention to prevent
macrosomia and neonatal hypoglycemia. ATI CMS blueprint prioritizes abnormal
screening values requiring immediate diagnostic confirmation.
Correct Answer: B
Q3. The nurse is caring for a client with hyperemesis gravidarum who has been
admitted for dehydration. Which intervention is the priority?
A. Administer antiemetics before initiating oral intake
B. Initiate IV fluids with thiamine prior to dextrose-containing fluids
C. Start enteral nutrition via nasogastric tube
D. Obtain a serum hCG level to confirm pregnancy
B. Initiate IV fluids with thiamine prior to dextrose-containing fluids [CORRECT]
Rationale: Thiamine 100mg in 100mL NS over 30 minutes must precede dextrose
administration to prevent Wernicke's encephalopathy; hyperemesis gravidarum
causes dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and ketosis requiring IV fluid
resuscitation per ATI and evidence-based practice.
Correct Answer: B
Q4. A client at 35 weeks gestation reports painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The
nurse suspects placenta previa. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
A. Perform a sterile vaginal exam to assess cervical dilation
B. Prepare the client for an immediate vaginal delivery
,C. Place the client on pelvic rest and prepare for ultrasound
D. Administer oxytocin to augment labor
C. Place the client on pelvic rest and prepare for ultrasound [CORRECT]
Rationale: Placenta previa presents with painless bright red bleeding in the third
trimester; pelvic rest (no intercourse, no vaginal exams, no speculum) prevents
catastrophic hemorrhage, and transabdominal/transvaginal ultrasound confirms
diagnosis. ATI CMS emphasizes that digital cervical exams are contraindicated in
suspected previa.
Correct Answer: C
Q5. A client at 28 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and unsensitized. The nurse
anticipates which intervention?
A. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM within 72 hours postpartum only
B. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery if
infant is Rh-positive
C. Schedule amniocentesis to assess for fetal anemia
D. Administer RhoGAM only if the client experiences vaginal bleeding
B. Administer RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks and within 72 hours after delivery if
infant is Rh-positive [CORRECT]
Rationale: Unsensitized Rh-negative clients receive RhoGAM 300 mcg IM at 28 weeks
gestation and within 72 hours postpartum if the infant is Rh-positive to prevent
isoimmunization and hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn. ATI PN content and
ACOG guidelines support this standard prophylaxis.
Correct Answer: B
Q6. A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the signs of pregnancy. Which
finding does the nurse correctly identify as a positive sign?
, A. Amenorrhea
B. Chadwick's sign
C. Fetal heartbeat detected by Doppler at 12 weeks
D. Nausea and vomiting
C. Fetal heartbeat detected by Doppler at 12 weeks [CORRECT]
Rationale: Positive signs of pregnancy include fetal heartbeat by Doppler (10-12
weeks) or fetoscope (18-20 weeks), fetal movement felt by the examiner (18-20
weeks), and ultrasound visualization; presumptive signs include amenorrhea and
nausea, while probable signs include Chadwick's sign. ATI CMS distinguishes these
categories for NCLEX-PN success.
Correct Answer: C
Q7. A client with gestational diabetes asks the nurse about dietary recommendations.
Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? (Select all that apply.)
A. "Eat three large meals daily to maintain glucose levels."
B. "Consume small frequent meals with 2-3 snacks daily."
C. "Choose complex carbohydrates and increase fiber intake."
D. "Monitor fasting glucose to remain below 95 mg/dL."
E. "Avoid all carbohydrates to prevent hyperglycemia."
B. "Consume small frequent meals with 2-3 snacks daily." [CORRECT]
C. "Choose complex carbohydrates and increase fiber intake." [CORRECT]
D. "Monitor fasting glucose to remain below 95 mg/dL." [CORRECT]
Rationale: GDM management includes medical nutrition therapy with small frequent
meals (3 meals + 2-3 snacks), complex carbohydrates, fiber, protein, and healthy fats;
target fasting glucose is <95 mg/dL, 1-hour postprandial <140 mg/dL, and 2-hour
postprandial <120 mg/dL. ATI and ADA guidelines support carbohydrate counting,
not carbohydrate elimination.
Correct Answer: B, C, D
