Page 1 of 21
BSN 315 HESI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM NIGHTGALE
QUESTIONS NEWEST 2026 EXAM QUESTIONS LATEST
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100
%
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an
insect sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this
client?
a) Dopamine
b) Ephedrine
c) Epinephrine
d) Diphenhydramine
c) Epinephrine
A postoperative client has been receiving a continuous IV infusion of
meperidine 35 mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for
meperidine 100 mg PO every 3 hours. The nurse notes that the client has
become increasingly restless, irritable, and confused, stating that there are
bugs all over the walls. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine.
b) Administer naloxone IV per PRN protocol.
c) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine per protocol.
d) Notify the healthcare provider of the client's confusion and hallucinations.
c) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine per protocol.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin one month ago calls the triage nurse
at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which
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statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide
to this client?
a) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels
can cause muscle spasms.
b) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to
assess hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
c) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain
may be an indication of a serious side effect.
d) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance
the effectiveness of the drug.
c) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may
be an indication of a serious side effect.
A client with heart failure (HF) is being discharged with a new prescription for
the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril. The nurse's
discharge instructions should include reporting which problem to the
healthcare provider?
a) Weight loss.
b) Dizziness.
c) Muscle cramps.
d) Dry mucous membranes.
b) Dizziness.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a
controlled-release oxycodone prescription?
a) As needed.
b) Every 12 hours.
c) Every 24 hours.
d) Every 4 to 6 hours.
b) Every 12 hours.
A client with dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide in 4 divided doses over
the next 24 hours. Which dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
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a) Every 6 hours.
b) QID.
c) AC and bedtime.
d) PC and bedtime.
a) Every 6 hours.
Which symptoms are serious adverse effects of beta-adrenergic blockers such
as propranolol?
a) Headache, hypertension, and blurred vision.
b) Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block.
c) Vomiting, dilated pupils, and papilledema.
d) Tinnitus, muscle weakness, and tachypnea.
b) Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high
dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
a) Loperamide.
b) Probantheline.
c) Bismuth subsalicylate.
d) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine.
c) Bismuth subsalicylate.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive
morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA
to a total of 5 mg IV maximally per hour. Which assessment has the highest
priority before initiating the PCA pump?
a) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
b) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
c) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
d) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain.
b) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose, which outcome would indicate that the
drug is performing as intended?
BSN 315 HESI PHARMACOLOGY EXAM NIGHTGALE
QUESTIONS NEWEST 2026 EXAM QUESTIONS LATEST
VERSION SOLVED QUESTIONS & ANSWERS VERIFIED 100
%
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing anaphylaxis from an
insect sting. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer to this
client?
a) Dopamine
b) Ephedrine
c) Epinephrine
d) Diphenhydramine
c) Epinephrine
A postoperative client has been receiving a continuous IV infusion of
meperidine 35 mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for
meperidine 100 mg PO every 3 hours. The nurse notes that the client has
become increasingly restless, irritable, and confused, stating that there are
bugs all over the walls. Which action should the nurse take first?
a) Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine.
b) Administer naloxone IV per PRN protocol.
c) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine per protocol.
d) Notify the healthcare provider of the client's confusion and hallucinations.
c) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine per protocol.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin one month ago calls the triage nurse
at the clinic complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his legs. Which
, Page 2 of 21
statement reflects the correct drug-specific teaching the nurse should provide
to this client?
a) Increase consumption of potassium-rich foods since low potassium levels
can cause muscle spasms.
b) Have serum electrolytes checked at the next scheduled appointment to
assess hyponatremia, a cause of cramping.
c) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain
may be an indication of a serious side effect.
d) Be sure to consume a low-cholesterol diet while taking the drug to enhance
the effectiveness of the drug.
c) Make an appointment to see the healthcare provider, because muscle pain may
be an indication of a serious side effect.
A client with heart failure (HF) is being discharged with a new prescription for
the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril. The nurse's
discharge instructions should include reporting which problem to the
healthcare provider?
a) Weight loss.
b) Dizziness.
c) Muscle cramps.
d) Dry mucous membranes.
b) Dizziness.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a
controlled-release oxycodone prescription?
a) As needed.
b) Every 12 hours.
c) Every 24 hours.
d) Every 4 to 6 hours.
b) Every 12 hours.
A client with dysrhythmia is to receive procainamide in 4 divided doses over
the next 24 hours. Which dosing schedule is best for the nurse to implement?
, Page 3 of 21
a) Every 6 hours.
b) QID.
c) AC and bedtime.
d) PC and bedtime.
a) Every 6 hours.
Which symptoms are serious adverse effects of beta-adrenergic blockers such
as propranolol?
a) Headache, hypertension, and blurred vision.
b) Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block.
c) Vomiting, dilated pupils, and papilledema.
d) Tinnitus, muscle weakness, and tachypnea.
b) Wheezing, hypotension, and AV block.
Which antidiarrheal agent should be used with caution in clients taking high
dosages of aspirin for arthritis?
a) Loperamide.
b) Probantheline.
c) Bismuth subsalicylate.
d) Diphenoxylate hydrochloride with atropine.
c) Bismuth subsalicylate.
The nurse is reviewing the use of the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump
with a client in the immediate postoperative period. The client will receive
morphine 1 mg IV per hour basal rate with 1 mg IV every 15 minutes per PCA
to a total of 5 mg IV maximally per hour. Which assessment has the highest
priority before initiating the PCA pump?
a) The expiration date on the morphine syringe in the pump.
b) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
c) The type of anesthesia used during the surgical procedure.
d) The client's subjective and objective signs of pain.
b) The rate and depth of the client's respirations.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose, which outcome would indicate that the
drug is performing as intended?
