Exam Questions With Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
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Question 1
A 65-year-old male presents with crushing substernal chest pain
radiating to the left arm. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF.
Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
A. Left anterior descending artery
B. Left circumflex artery
C. Right coronary artery
D. Posterior descending artery
Answer: C
Rationale: Inferior wall myocardial infarctions (II, III, aVF) are most
commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery, which
supplies the inferior portion of the heart in most individuals.
,Question 2
A patient presents with wheezing, dyspnea, and FEV1/FVC ratio of 60%.
Which condition is most consistent?
A. Restrictive lung disease
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary fibrosis
D. Pleural effusion
Answer: B
Rationale: An obstructive pattern with reduced FEV1/FVC ratio is
characteristic of asthma and COPD; asthma is suggested by reversible
airway obstruction and wheezing.
Question 3
Which osteopathic technique is best for treating acute thoracic somatic
dysfunction with muscle spasm?
A. High-velocity low-amplitude (HVLA)
B. Muscle energy
C. Lymphatic pump
D. Myofascial release
Answer: D
,Rationale: Myofascial release is gentle and appropriate for acute
muscle spasm, whereas HVLA may be contraindicated in acute pain
states.
Question 4
A newborn has a “machine-like” murmur. Which condition is most
likely?
A. Tetralogy of Fallot
B. Patent ductus arteriosus
C. Atrial septal defect
D. Ventricular septal defect
Answer: B
Rationale: Patent ductus arteriosus causes continuous “machine-like”
murmur due to persistent connection between aorta and pulmonary
artery.
Question 5
Which electrolyte abnormality is most associated with peaked T waves
on ECG?
, A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Hyperkalemia causes peaked T waves, widened QRS, and
potentially life-threatening arrhythmias.
Question 6
A patient with cirrhosis presents with confusion, asterixis, and elevated
ammonia levels. What is the first-line treatment?
A. Lactulose
B. Neomycin
C. Rifaximin
D. Metronidazole
Answer: A
Rationale: Lactulose reduces ammonia absorption in hepatic
encephalopathy by acidifying the gut and trapping ammonia as
ammonium.