CCRN QUESTIONS EXAM 2
QUESTIONS & ACCURATE PASSED
ANSWERS 100%
2. A patient presents with a productive cough, hypoxemia, a fever, hypotension,
tachycardia, and tachypnea. Hypoxemia was corrected with the administration of
oxygen. Which of the following should be done next?
A. Administer antibiotics.
B. Start a vasopressor.
C. Collect a sputum culture.
D. Initiate 0.9 normal saline. - Correct Answer ✔✔ (D) Correcting the
hypotension (with isotonic fluid resuscitation in order to maintain
organ perfusion) is the priority at this time. Antibiotics (choice
(A)) will need to be started after blood cultures are obtained. A
vasopressor (choice (B)) may not be needed if the MAP is restored
with fluids. Although a sputum culture (choice (C)) may be
indicated, blood cultures need to be drawn first so that antibiotics
can be given (within the first hour, if possible).
10. A patient has a history of chronic respiratory failure secondary to COPD and now
has acute respiratory failure secondary to pneumonia. Upon arrival at the critical care
unit, his ABGs were a pH of 7.29, a PaCO 2 of 77, a PaO 2 of 51, and an HCO 3 of 31.
He is receiving noninvasive ventilation with settings that read as follows: FiO 2 0.40,
IPAP 12 cm, and EPAP 5 cm. After 1 hour of therapy, the patient's ABG results are a
pH of 7.20, a PaCO 2 of 89, a PaO 2 of 48, and an HCO 3 of 32. What is the correct
evaluation of this data?
A) Alveolar hyperventilation is getting worse; the BiPAP settings need adjustment.
B) Metabolic acidosis is worse; the FiO 2 needs to be increased.
C) Alveolar hypoventilation is getting worse; the patient needs to be intubated.
D) The pH is acceptable for a patient with COPD; continue the current therapy. - Correct
Answer ✔✔ C. The patient did not
respond to noninvasive ventilation since the PaCO 2 increased, respiratory acidosis is
worse, and severe hypoxemia was
not corrected. BiPAP should not be continued. The issue is not metabolic acidosis. The
pH is not acceptable.
20. A patient is alert and is receiving mechanical ventilation with the following settings:
assist-control mode at 10 breaths/minute, FiO 2 0.40, and PEEP 5 cm H 2 O pressure.
Vital signs include a 18 breaths/minute, with norepinephrine at 7 mcg/min for the past 4
hours. The patient has tolerated repositioning in bed and a head of bed elevation up to
90°. Which of the following would be an appropriate next step in terms of mobility for
this patient?
,A) Allow the patient to sit on the edge of the bed, with assistance.
B) Reduce the head of bed elevation to 45°.
C) Maintain the patient's current level of mobility.
D) Help the patient stand and pivot to a chair. - Correct Answer ✔✔ A. This patient
tolerated
the current activity with head of bed elevation in high
Fowler's position and is now ready to progress to sitting without back support with his
legs dangling. This patient does not have contraindications to mobility progression;
therefore, reducing the patient's mobility (choice (B)) or maintaining the patient's current
level of mobility (choice (C)) would not provide progress. Although
the patient might be able to progress to weight-bearing and sitting in a chair, it is best to
go step-by-step and then reassess, not to proceed directly to weight-bearing (as choice
(D) suggests).
21. A 70 kg patient with ARDS is mechanically ventilated with the following settings: FiO
2 70%, tidal volume 450 mL, assist-control mode 10 breaths/minute, and PEEP 20 cm
H 2 O pressure. On these settings, the patient's PaO 2 is 76 mmHg and the PaCO 2 is
58 mmHg. The patient's core temperature is 37°C, his heart rate is 116 beats/minute,
and his B/P is 78/58. Which of the following interventions should the nurse now
anticipate?
A) Decrease PEEP to decrease the intrathoracic pressure.
B) Administer a 500 mL fluid bolus of normal saline.
C) Initiate a norepinephrine drip to maintain a SBP of 80 mmHg.
D) Increase the tidal volume to 750 mL. - Correct Answer ✔✔ B. The primary problem is
hypotension, and it should be treated with fluids. Although a reduction of PEEP would
most likely increase the B/P, it would result in derecruitment of alveoli and hypoxemia. A
norepinephrine drip should be initiated only if fluids alone do not correct the
hypotension. An increase in the tidal volume would not increase the B/P and would
cause volutrauma in a patient with ARDS.
23. A 70 kg patient with ARDS is intubated and mechanically ventilated. The patient is
on continuous infusions of an opiate, a sedative, and neuromuscular blocking drugs.
The plateau pressure is 45 cm H 2 O. The PaO 2 is 60 mmHg. The physician orders the
following ventilator settings: SIMV mode, tidal volume 700 mL, rate 12 breaths/minute,
FiO 2 1.00, and PEEP 15 cm H 2 O pressure. Which of the following needs to be
discussed with the physician?
A) the ventilator mode
B) the tidal volume
C) the PEEP
D) the FiO 2 - Correct Answer ✔✔ B. This patient with ARDS
needs to receive 4-5 mL/kg tidal volume in order to prevent volutrauma. This patient is
receiving 10 mL/kg tidal volume, and
this level needs to be reduced. The mode of ventilation and both the
PEEP and the FiO 2 settings are acceptable.
, 31. Which of the following nursing behaviors is usually most helpful to patients and
families regarding end-of-life decisions?
A) avoiding the use of words such as "death," "dying," and "suffering" B) consulting the
clergy for support
C) acting as an arbitrator between family members
D) requesting that only 1 person be the spokesperson - Correct Answer ✔✔ C. When
end-of-life
decisions are required, a certain amount of family conflict usually occurs. An
experienced nurse knows how to arbitrate in these
matters. Choice (A) is not an effective strategy. The clergy may be consulted but only if
this is the family's wish. A request that only 1 person be the spokesperson is an
effective strategy for routine
communication with a large family. However, when end-of-life decisions are necessary,
all stakeholders need to have a voice.
34. A patient presented with sepsis secondary to a urinary tract infection. After the initial
administration of 30 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid, the B/P is 88/46 (the MAP is 60
mmHg), the heart
rate is 102 beats/minute, the respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute, and the lungs are
clear. What intervention is indicated at this time?
A) Decrease the rate of fluid administration.
B) Start a dobutamine (Dobutrex) infusion.
C) Start a norepinephrine (Levophed) infusion.
D) Start a vasopressin infusion. - Correct Answer ✔✔ C. This patient's MAP is
still not > 65 mmHg. Therefore, a vasopressor needs to be
initiated, and norepinephrine is the vasopressor of choice. Fluids will need to be
continued at a rapid rate as long as there are no signs of fluid overload. Since fluids
need to be continued, not decreased, choice (A) is incorrect. A positive inotrope (such
as the one mentioned in choice (B)) is not indicated at this time. Vasopressin (choice
(D)) is also not indicated and would only be started if norepinephrine at a higher dose
was not increasing the
blood pressure.
37. Which of the following pathophysiological conditions will cause refractory hypoxemia
that is not treatable with oxygen alone?
A) shunt
B) hyperventilation
C) diffusion defects
D) V/Q mismatch - Correct Answer ✔✔ A. A shunt requires more
than oxygen to correct hypoxemia; for example, PEEP therapy is
needed. Hyperventilation reduces the pCO 2 , not the
pO 2 . Diffusion defects may produce hypoxemia, but
that condition responds to oxygen therapy alone. A V/Q mismatch that
results in hypoxemia will respond to oxygen administration alone.
QUESTIONS & ACCURATE PASSED
ANSWERS 100%
2. A patient presents with a productive cough, hypoxemia, a fever, hypotension,
tachycardia, and tachypnea. Hypoxemia was corrected with the administration of
oxygen. Which of the following should be done next?
A. Administer antibiotics.
B. Start a vasopressor.
C. Collect a sputum culture.
D. Initiate 0.9 normal saline. - Correct Answer ✔✔ (D) Correcting the
hypotension (with isotonic fluid resuscitation in order to maintain
organ perfusion) is the priority at this time. Antibiotics (choice
(A)) will need to be started after blood cultures are obtained. A
vasopressor (choice (B)) may not be needed if the MAP is restored
with fluids. Although a sputum culture (choice (C)) may be
indicated, blood cultures need to be drawn first so that antibiotics
can be given (within the first hour, if possible).
10. A patient has a history of chronic respiratory failure secondary to COPD and now
has acute respiratory failure secondary to pneumonia. Upon arrival at the critical care
unit, his ABGs were a pH of 7.29, a PaCO 2 of 77, a PaO 2 of 51, and an HCO 3 of 31.
He is receiving noninvasive ventilation with settings that read as follows: FiO 2 0.40,
IPAP 12 cm, and EPAP 5 cm. After 1 hour of therapy, the patient's ABG results are a
pH of 7.20, a PaCO 2 of 89, a PaO 2 of 48, and an HCO 3 of 32. What is the correct
evaluation of this data?
A) Alveolar hyperventilation is getting worse; the BiPAP settings need adjustment.
B) Metabolic acidosis is worse; the FiO 2 needs to be increased.
C) Alveolar hypoventilation is getting worse; the patient needs to be intubated.
D) The pH is acceptable for a patient with COPD; continue the current therapy. - Correct
Answer ✔✔ C. The patient did not
respond to noninvasive ventilation since the PaCO 2 increased, respiratory acidosis is
worse, and severe hypoxemia was
not corrected. BiPAP should not be continued. The issue is not metabolic acidosis. The
pH is not acceptable.
20. A patient is alert and is receiving mechanical ventilation with the following settings:
assist-control mode at 10 breaths/minute, FiO 2 0.40, and PEEP 5 cm H 2 O pressure.
Vital signs include a 18 breaths/minute, with norepinephrine at 7 mcg/min for the past 4
hours. The patient has tolerated repositioning in bed and a head of bed elevation up to
90°. Which of the following would be an appropriate next step in terms of mobility for
this patient?
,A) Allow the patient to sit on the edge of the bed, with assistance.
B) Reduce the head of bed elevation to 45°.
C) Maintain the patient's current level of mobility.
D) Help the patient stand and pivot to a chair. - Correct Answer ✔✔ A. This patient
tolerated
the current activity with head of bed elevation in high
Fowler's position and is now ready to progress to sitting without back support with his
legs dangling. This patient does not have contraindications to mobility progression;
therefore, reducing the patient's mobility (choice (B)) or maintaining the patient's current
level of mobility (choice (C)) would not provide progress. Although
the patient might be able to progress to weight-bearing and sitting in a chair, it is best to
go step-by-step and then reassess, not to proceed directly to weight-bearing (as choice
(D) suggests).
21. A 70 kg patient with ARDS is mechanically ventilated with the following settings: FiO
2 70%, tidal volume 450 mL, assist-control mode 10 breaths/minute, and PEEP 20 cm
H 2 O pressure. On these settings, the patient's PaO 2 is 76 mmHg and the PaCO 2 is
58 mmHg. The patient's core temperature is 37°C, his heart rate is 116 beats/minute,
and his B/P is 78/58. Which of the following interventions should the nurse now
anticipate?
A) Decrease PEEP to decrease the intrathoracic pressure.
B) Administer a 500 mL fluid bolus of normal saline.
C) Initiate a norepinephrine drip to maintain a SBP of 80 mmHg.
D) Increase the tidal volume to 750 mL. - Correct Answer ✔✔ B. The primary problem is
hypotension, and it should be treated with fluids. Although a reduction of PEEP would
most likely increase the B/P, it would result in derecruitment of alveoli and hypoxemia. A
norepinephrine drip should be initiated only if fluids alone do not correct the
hypotension. An increase in the tidal volume would not increase the B/P and would
cause volutrauma in a patient with ARDS.
23. A 70 kg patient with ARDS is intubated and mechanically ventilated. The patient is
on continuous infusions of an opiate, a sedative, and neuromuscular blocking drugs.
The plateau pressure is 45 cm H 2 O. The PaO 2 is 60 mmHg. The physician orders the
following ventilator settings: SIMV mode, tidal volume 700 mL, rate 12 breaths/minute,
FiO 2 1.00, and PEEP 15 cm H 2 O pressure. Which of the following needs to be
discussed with the physician?
A) the ventilator mode
B) the tidal volume
C) the PEEP
D) the FiO 2 - Correct Answer ✔✔ B. This patient with ARDS
needs to receive 4-5 mL/kg tidal volume in order to prevent volutrauma. This patient is
receiving 10 mL/kg tidal volume, and
this level needs to be reduced. The mode of ventilation and both the
PEEP and the FiO 2 settings are acceptable.
, 31. Which of the following nursing behaviors is usually most helpful to patients and
families regarding end-of-life decisions?
A) avoiding the use of words such as "death," "dying," and "suffering" B) consulting the
clergy for support
C) acting as an arbitrator between family members
D) requesting that only 1 person be the spokesperson - Correct Answer ✔✔ C. When
end-of-life
decisions are required, a certain amount of family conflict usually occurs. An
experienced nurse knows how to arbitrate in these
matters. Choice (A) is not an effective strategy. The clergy may be consulted but only if
this is the family's wish. A request that only 1 person be the spokesperson is an
effective strategy for routine
communication with a large family. However, when end-of-life decisions are necessary,
all stakeholders need to have a voice.
34. A patient presented with sepsis secondary to a urinary tract infection. After the initial
administration of 30 mL/kg of isotonic crystalloid, the B/P is 88/46 (the MAP is 60
mmHg), the heart
rate is 102 beats/minute, the respiratory rate is 22 breaths/minute, and the lungs are
clear. What intervention is indicated at this time?
A) Decrease the rate of fluid administration.
B) Start a dobutamine (Dobutrex) infusion.
C) Start a norepinephrine (Levophed) infusion.
D) Start a vasopressin infusion. - Correct Answer ✔✔ C. This patient's MAP is
still not > 65 mmHg. Therefore, a vasopressor needs to be
initiated, and norepinephrine is the vasopressor of choice. Fluids will need to be
continued at a rapid rate as long as there are no signs of fluid overload. Since fluids
need to be continued, not decreased, choice (A) is incorrect. A positive inotrope (such
as the one mentioned in choice (B)) is not indicated at this time. Vasopressin (choice
(D)) is also not indicated and would only be started if norepinephrine at a higher dose
was not increasing the
blood pressure.
37. Which of the following pathophysiological conditions will cause refractory hypoxemia
that is not treatable with oxygen alone?
A) shunt
B) hyperventilation
C) diffusion defects
D) V/Q mismatch - Correct Answer ✔✔ A. A shunt requires more
than oxygen to correct hypoxemia; for example, PEEP therapy is
needed. Hyperventilation reduces the pCO 2 , not the
pO 2 . Diffusion defects may produce hypoxemia, but
that condition responds to oxygen therapy alone. A V/Q mismatch that
results in hypoxemia will respond to oxygen administration alone.
